Nat 100-500

CHAPTER Nat 100 ORGANIZATION

PART Nat 101 PURPOSE

Nat 101.01 Purpose.

(a) These rules implement the statutory responsibilities of the New Hampshire naturopathic board of examiners.

(b) The board’s responsibilities include, but are not limited to:

(1) The establishment of organizational rules under which the board operates;

(2) The establishment of criteria required for initial licensure;

(3) The establishment of standards for continuing education;

(4) The establishment of criteria required for issuing renewal licenses;

(5) The further defining the practice of licensees, pursuant to RSA 328-E:10, I (a) and (f); and

(6) The establishment of professional standards of conduct for licensees.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05; ss by 13139, eff 11-26-20; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

PART Nat 102 DEFINITIONS

Nat 102.01 Terms Used. As used in these rules, the following terms shall have the meanings indicated:

(a) “Acupuncture” means the insertion of acupuncture needles into specific points on the skin to treat human disease and impairment and to relieve pain;

(b) "Board" means “board” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, III, namely, “the naturopathic board of examiners established under RSA 328-E:7.";

(d) “Dietary supplements” means a product that contains a dietary ingredient intended to supplement the human diet including vitamins, minerals, herbs or other botanicals, amino acids, probiotics, enzymes, and nutritional extracts;

(e) “Doctor of naturopathic medicine” means “doctor of naturopathic medicine” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, IV, namely, “a person authorized and licensed to practice naturopathic medicine under this chapter.”;

(f) “Homeopathic preparations” means “homeopathic preparations” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, V, namely, “medicines prepared according to the Homeopathic Pharmacopeia of the United States.”;

(g) “Minor office procedures” means “minor office procedure” as defined by RSA 328-E:2 VI, namely “care incident to superficial lacerations and abrasions, and the removal of foreign bodies located in superficial structures, not to include the eyes. It shall include the use of antiseptics in connection with such procedures but shall not include the alteration or removal of tissue.”

(h) “Naturopathic childbirth” means “natural childbirth” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, as defined by RSA 328-E:2 VII., namely “natural childbirth includes the use of natural obstetrical medicines, ophthalmic antibiotics, obstetrical emergency medicines, and minor surgery including episiotomies, but which does not include the use of forceps delivery, general or spinal anesthesia, cesarean section, or induced abortions”;

(i) “Naturopathic dispensary” means an establishment within a clinical setting where natural medicines including nutritional supplements, dietary supplements, herbal medicines, homeopathic remedies, and over-the-counter remedies are made available;

(j) “Naturopathic manipulative therapy” means “naturopathic manipulative therapy” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, VIII, namely, “the manually administered, mechanical treatment of body structures or tissues, in accordance with naturopathic principles, for the purpose of restoring normal physiological function to the body by normalizing and balancing the musculoskeletal system of the body.”;

(k) “Natural medicine” means agents from plant, mineral, or animal origins that are naturally occurring substances or manufactured substances that are produced to simulate such naturally occurring substances;

(l) “Naturopathic medicine” means “naturopathic medicine” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, IX, namely, “a system of primary health care practiced by doctors of naturopathic medicine for the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of human health conditions, injuries, and diseases that uses education, natural medicines and therapies to support and stimulate the individual's intrinsic self-healing processes.”;

(m) “Naturopathic physical medicine” means “naturopathic physical medicine” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, X, namely, “the therapeutic use of the physical agents of air, water, heat, cold, sound, light, and electromagnetic non-ionizing radiation and the physical modalities of electrotherapy, diathermy, ultraviolet light, ultrasound, hydrotherapy, naturopathic manipulative therapy, and therapeutic exercise,” and other physical agents and modalities consistent with current naturopathic education and training within the naturopathic scope of practice;

(n) “Therapeutic device” means any material, instrument, apparatus, appliance, or other article for therapeutic purposes that does not achieve its principle intended action in or on the human body by pharmacological, immunological, or metabolic means; and

(o) “Topical medicines” means “topical medicines” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, XI, namely, “topical analgesics, anesthetics, antiseptics, scabicides, antifungals, and antibacterials.”

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05; para (a) EXPIRED: 7-1-16 pursuant to RSA 541-A:17, II and 2015, 276:45 and 276:97; ss by #12337, eff 7-22-17; ss by #13139, eff 11-26-20, eff 11-26-20; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

PART Nat 103 DESCRIPTION OF THE BOARD

Nat 103.01 Composition of the Board. The board shall consist of 5 members who meet the eligibility requirements of RSA 328-E:7 and are appointed by the governor.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05

Nat 103.02 Duties of the Board. The board shall:

(a) Provide standards for the licensure and regulation of doctors of naturopathic medicine in order to protect the public health, safety, and welfare;

(b) Insure that naturopathic medicine by qualified doctors of naturopathic medicine is available to the people of New Hampshire; and

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

Nat 103.03 Council on Doctors of Naturopathic Medicine Formulary.

(a) There is a council on doctors of naturopathic medicine formulary with a membership as specified in RSA 328-E:16, I and a chair elected from among the members.

(b) The duties of the council are:

(1) To determine the substances to be included in the formulary that may be prescribed by a doctor of naturopathic medicine; and

(2) To review the formulary periodically in accordance with RSA 328-E:16, III.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05

Nat 103.04 Administrative and Staff Services. There shall be an administrative assistant and such other staff members as are provided by the office of professional licensure and certification to perform the record-keeping and other statutory functions of the board and to oversee the board's day-to-day operations.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05, EXPIRED: 7-1-16 pursuant to RSA 541-A:17, II and 2015, 276:45 and 276:97

New. #12337, eff 7-22-17

Nat 103.05 Meetings. The board shall meet semi-annually and at such additional times called for by:

(a) The chairperson; or

(b) Vote of the board.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05

Nat 103.06 Quorum and Majority for Decision Making.

(a) A total of 3 members of the board shall constitute a quorum, in accordance with RSA 328-E:7, V, to convene a meeting or conduct a hearing.

(b) Any action shall be taken only by the affirmative vote of a majority of those board members present and voting.

(c) Board members shall inform the board administrator at the earliest possible time if they will be unable to attend a meeting so that a new meeting time can be scheduled if there will not be a quorum.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05; ss by #13139, eff 11-26-20; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

Nat 103.07 Record of Board Actions.

(a) Minutes shall be kept of board meetings and of official actions taken by the board.

(b) These minutes shall record those members who participate in each vote and shall separately record the position of members who choose to dissent, abstain or concur.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-9 ; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05

Nat 103.08 RESERVED

Nat 103.09 Officers.

(a) The board shall elect a chairperson and vice-chairperson annually at the first meeting of each calendar year.

(b) The chairperson shall oversee all correspondence to and from the board, represent the board or designate another board member to represent the board, and chair the board meetings.

Source. #8299, eff 3-9-05; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

PART Nat 104 PUBLIC REQUESTS FOR INFORMATION

Nat 104.01 Office Location and Mailing Address, Office Hours, Telephone Number, and TTY/TDD Access.

(a) The board's office is located at:

New Hampshire Naturopathic Board of Examiners

Office of Professional Licensure and Certification

7 Eagle Square

Concord, N.H. 03301

(b) The office shall be open to the public weekdays, excluding holidays, from 8:00 A.M. to 4:00 P.M.

(d) Access to the board for in-state TTY/TDD users is through Relay New Hampshire by dialing 1-800-735-2964.

(e) Persons wishing to make submissions to, or requests of, the board may mail a letter to the board at the address stated in paragraph (a), call the number stated in paragraph (c), or communicate by TTY/TDD using the number stated in paragraph (d).

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05; paras (c) and (e) EXPIRED: 7-1-16 pursuant to RSA 541-A:17, II and 2015, 276:45 and 276:97; ss by #12337, eff 7-22-17; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

Nat 104.02 Inspection and Copies of Records.

(a) Pursuant to RSA 91-A:4 members of the public may inspect and have copies of those records of the board which are public records and not exempt from disclosure under RSA 91-A:5 or other applicable law.

(b) The executive director of the office of professional licensure and certification shall be the custodian of the board's records and shall respond to requests to examine and have copies of public records.

(c) Minutes of board proceedings in public session shall be public records pursuant to RSA 91-A:2, II and shall be available for inspection during the board's ordinary office hours.

(d) Minutes of board proceedings in nonpublic session shall be public records and made available within 72 hours of the meeting, unless, pursuant to RSA 91-A:3, III, the board votes to keep such records confidential.

(e) Persons desiring copies of board records shall submit a request pursuant to Plc 104.01 that contains the information specified in Plc 104.02.

(f) If records are requested which contain both public information and information exempt from disclosure pursuant to RSA 91-A or other law, the executive director shall redact the information exempt from disclosure and provide the remaining information.

Source. #6379, eff 11-26-96; ss by #8299, eff 3-9-05; ss by #14392, eff 9-30-25

CHAPTER Nat 200 PROCEDURAL RULES

PART Nat 201 PRACTICE AND PROCEDURES

Nat 201.01 Rules of Practice and Procedure. The Plc 200 rules shall govern with regards to all procedures for:

(a) The receipt and investigation of misconduct complaints;

(b) The conduct of adjudicative and non-adjudicative proceedings;

(d) Public comment hearings;

(e) Declaratory rulings;

(f) Explanation of adopted rules;

(g) Voluntary surrender of licenses; and

(h) Waivers.

Source. #14481, eff 2-1-26

CHAPTER Nat 300 LICENSING AND CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS

PART Nat 301 DEFINITIONS

Nat 301.01 “Accreditation Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine (ACAOM)” means a national entity recognized by the United States department of education as the accrediting body for professional educational programs in acupuncture and oriental medicine.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.02 “American College of Naturopathic Obstetricians (ACNO)” means a national professional organization which sponsors an examination for certification of naturopathic obstetricians.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.03 “Board” means “board” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, III, namely, “the naturopathic board of examiners established under RSA 328-E:7.”

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.04 “Council on Naturopathic Medical Examination (CNME)” means a national organization that accredits programs which prepare students to become licensed naturopathic doctors.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.05 “Doctor of naturopathic medicine (ND)” means “doctor of naturopathic medicine” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, IV, namely, “a person authorized and licensed to practice naturopathic medicine under this chapter.”

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.06 “National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine (NCCAOM)” means a non-profit organization with the mission to establish, assess, and promote recognized standards of competence and safety in acupuncture and oriental medicine.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.07 “Naturopathic Physicians Licensing Examinations (NPLEX)” means the examinations administered by NABNE consisting of part I covering basic sciences and part II covering clinical sciences and designed to establish minimum uniform national standards of competence for naturopathic license applicants.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 301.08 “The North American Board of Naturopathic Examiners (NABNE)” means the examining board responsible for verifying applicants' qualifications to take NPLEX and for administering NPLEX.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 302 APPLICATION PROCEDURE

Nat 302.01 Application for Initial Licensure as a Doctor of Naturopathic Medicine. Persons who are not currently licensed as a doctor of naturopathic medicine or naturopathic physician in any state, the District of Columbia, or U.S. territory and who wish to apply for a license as a doctor of naturopathic medicine shall do so by submitting an application which contains:

(a) The completed application form described in Nat 302.03;

(b) The supporting materials specified by Nat 302.04; and

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 302.02 Processing of Applications.

(a) If the board, for the purpose of determining applicants' qualification for licensure, requires any information, materials, or documents additional to those first submitted it shall:

(1) So notify the applicants in writing within 30 days and

(2) Specify the information, materials, and documents which the applicants are required to submit.

(b) If applicants do not submit the additional information and documents requested pursuant to (a) above within 60 days of receipt of the request;

(1) Their applications shall be denied; and

(2) They shall file entirely new applications if they desire to be licensed.

(c) The board shall approve or deny applications in writing within 60 days of the date that the board's office has received:

(1) The materials specified by Nat 302.01; and

(2) Any information, materials, and documents requested pursuant to (a) above.

(d) Applicants may challenge the board's denial of their applications through a hearing if they make a written request for a hearing within 30 days of the date of receipt of the board's notification of denial.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 302.03 Two-Part Application Form.

(a) Applicants for initial licensure shall complete, sign, and date a 2-part application form provided by the board.

(b) The information entered on both parts of the application form shall be typewritten or legibly printed in ink.

(1) First name, middle initial, and last name;

(2) Date and place of birth;

(3) Business or other mailing address by name of business, if any, street number and name, city or town, state, and zip code;

(4) Business telephone number; and

(5) With respect to naturopathic medical education:

a. The name and location of the institution(s);

b. The dates of attendance; and

c. The degree awarded.

(d) On the first part of the application form under the heading “Other Information” applicants shall indicate, using the “yes” and “no” boxes provided, whether:

(1) They have ever been licensed or otherwise authorized to practice naturopathic medicine in any state, the District of Columbia, any territory, or any foreign country;

(2) They have ever been refused a professional license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine by a regulatory body of any state, country or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(3) They have ever had a professional license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine revoked or suspended by a regulatory body of any state, country, or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(4) They have had disciplinary action other than action reportable under paragraphs (2) and (3) taken against them by any state, country, or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(5) They have ever entered into a settlement agreement or consent decree to resolve a complaint of misconduct or a disciplinary charge;

(6) Any of their professional licenses are presently the subject of a disciplinary proceeding, settlement agreement or consent decree undertaken or issued by any professional licensing authority in any jurisdiction;

(7) In the past 10 years, any disciplinary action has been taken against them by any hospital or other health care facility, or international, national, state, or local professional association;

(8) A malpractice claim or a malpractice law suit has been brought against them within the last 10 years;

(9) They have ever been denied certification by NCCAOM or ACNO;

(10) Their NCCAOM or ACNO certification has ever been suspended or revoked; and

(11) They have ever been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor.

(e) The applicant shall sign and date the first part of the application form below the following statement preprinted on the form:

“(1) The information provided on both parts of the application form and the documentation provided to support the application are true, accurate, complete and unaltered; and

(2) The applicant acknowledges that, pursuant to RSA 641:3, the knowing making of a false statement on the application form is punishable as a misdemeanor.”

(f) The applicant's signature as set forth in (e) above shall constitute the applicant's acknowledgement of his or her understanding that any untrue, inaccurate, incomplete, or altered information made knowingly on either part of the application form or included in the supporting materials is grounds for punishment pursuant to RSA 641:3.

(g) On the second part of the application form applicants shall provide:

(1) Their home addresses by street number and name, city or town, state, and zip code; and

(2) Their home telephone numbers.

(h) On the second part of the application form applicants shall indicate, using the “yes” and “no” boxes provided, whether:

(1) They are now being, anticipate being, or have ever been, investigated for possible misconduct by a regulatory body of any state or country or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(2) They anticipate that any of their professional licenses soon will be the subject of a disciplinary proceeding, settlement agreement, or consent decree undertaken or issued by any professional licensing authority in any jurisdiction;

(3) They have ever voluntarily surrendered a license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine, or allowed such a license or authorization to lapse, to avoid disciplinary investigation or action;

(4) They are now being, or have in the past 10 years been, investigated and disciplined for possible misconduct by a hospital or other health care facility, or international, national, state, or local professional association;

(5) They have any physical, mental, addictive or other condition that negatively affects their ability to practice naturopathic medicine;

(6) They have any physical, mental, addictive, or other condition for which continuing remedial or therapeutic action is required to ensure their continuing ability to practice naturopathic medicine; and

(7) Since graduation from high school they have ever been denied the privilege of taking or finishing an examination or been accused of cheating or improper conduct during an examination.

(i) Applicants shall also complete and submit, as part of their application, a board provided “Application Checklist” form, effective March 2017.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 302.04 Supporting Materials.

(a) Applicants shall submit, or arrange for the submission of, the following supporting materials:

(1) A recent, un-retouched 3" by 4" photograph of the applicant;

(2) An official transcript(s) from each naturopathic medical college attended by the applicant;

(3) Verification of graduation from a naturopathic medical college meeting the requirements of Nat 303.02 in the form of:

a. A copy of the applicant’s diploma authenticated by the issuing institution; or

b. The following statement, completed by the president, secretary, or dean of the naturopathic medical college, affixed with a school seal:

“Certificate of naturopathic degree: It is hereby certified that ____________ matriculated in ______________ at _____________ on ________________ and received a diploma from this institution conferring the degree of Doctor of Naturopathic Medicine.”

(4) If passage of NPLEX examinations is required by Nat 303.02(a), NPLEX scores sent directly to the board from NABNE;

(5) At least 2 signed letters of professional recommendation:

a. Written by a licensed doctor of naturopathic medicine, a licensed osteopathic doctor, or a licensed medical doctor;

b. Including:

1. The name and address of the writer;

2. The writer's professional titles and affiliations;

3. The name and address of the applicant; and

4. The writer's statement that the writer is familiar with the work of the applicant and that it is of good professional quality;

(6) If any responses to the questions set forth in Nat 302.03(d) are affirmative, a complete and detailed written statement of the circumstances;

(7) If any responses to the questions set forth in Nat 302.03(h) are affirmative, a complete and detailed statement of the circumstances, written on a sheet of paper separate from the sheet of paper used for the statement required by (f) above; and

(8) Pursuant to RSA 161-B:11, VI-a, the applicant's social security number written on a separate sheet of paper which is:

a. Provided by the board; and

b. Includes the following preprinted notice:

"Information About The Request for Your Social Security Number

The Naturopathic Board of Examiners is required by law to ask for your social security number. The number will be held confidential by the Board and used only for enforcement of the laws governing child support. (42 USC 666(a)(13); RSA 161-B:11)."

(b) The information provided by the applicant described in (h) above shall not be used for any reason except the enforcement of child support laws pursuant to 42 USC 666(a)(13) and RSA 161-B:11.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 303 QUALIFICATIONS

Nat 303.01 Eligibility for Initial Licensure. Applicants for initial licensure shall be eligible if they:

(a) Meet the academic requirements of Nat 303.02;

(b) Possess a good moral and professional reputation as evidenced by:

(1) The answers to the questions in Nat 302.03(d) and any related documents submitted pursuant to Nat 302.04(f);

(2) The answers to the questions in Nat 302.03(h) and any related documents submitted pursuant to Nat 302.04(g); and

(3) The letters required by Nat 302.04(e);

(1) The answers to the questions in Nat 302.03(h)(5) and (6) and any related documents submitted pursuant to Nat 302.04(g); and

(2) The letters required by Nat 302.04(e); and

(d) Have had no license, certification, or registration to practice naturopathic medicine refused, revoked, or suspended by any other state or country for reasons which relate to the applicant's ability to skillfully and safely practice naturopathic medicine.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 303.02 Academic Requirements. Academic requirements shall be:

(a) Graduation from a naturopathic medical college accredited by the Council on Naturopathic Medical Education or by another naturopathic accrediting agency recognized by the federal government combined with passing the NPLEX examinations; or

(b) Graduation from a naturopathic medical college which:

(1) Granted degrees prior to 1981; and

(2) Meets or met while the applicant attended the program the program standards of Nat 303.03

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 303.03 Program Standards for Naturopathic Medical Colleges Granting Degrees Prior to 1981.

(a) The naturopathic medical college shall:

(1) Have or have had while the applicant was in attendance as its clearly stated major objective the preparation of students to become doctors of naturopathic medicine and to become licensed to practice;

(2) Have or have had while the applicant was in attendance an academic program with the curriculum specified in Nat 303.04 and the clinical program specified in Nat 303.05;

(3) Require for graduation 4 years of full-time study through the academic and clinical programs; and

(4) Include no long-distance learning or correspondence courses.

(b) For the purpose of interpreting Nat 303.04 and Nat 303.05 as they govern the duration and credit of educational hours, 12 clock hours of study shall equal one quarter credit and the equivalent in semester credits.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 303.04 Curriculum.

(a) The curriculum shall include:

(1) A minimum of 1000 clock hours of basic science instruction described in (b) below; and

(2) A minimum of 1200 clock hours of clinical science instruction described in (c) below.

(b) Basic science instruction shall be a core program requiring each student to demonstrate competence in each of the following substantive content areas:

(1) Human anatomy;

(2) Physiology;

(3) Biochemistry;

(4) Pathology;

(5) Pharmacology; and

(6) Pharmacognosy.

(1) Prepare students to diagnose the causes of human ailments and treat them using naturopathic medications and other naturopathic methods; and

(2) Include the following courses:

a. Diagnostic courses including:

1. Physical;

2. Clinical;

3. Laboratory; and

4. Radiological;

b. Therapeutic courses including:

1. Botanical medicine;

2. Homeopathy;

3. Nutrition;

4. Naturopathic physical medicine; and

5. Psychological counseling; and

c. Specialty courses including:

1 Organ systems;

2. Cardiology;

3. Dermatology;

4. Endocrinology;

5. Eyes, ears, nose, and throat;

6. Gastroenterology;

7. Orthopedics;

8. Neurology;

9. Gynecology;

10. Natural childbirth;

11. Obstetrics;

l2. Pediatrics;

13. Geriatrics;

14. Jurisprudence; and

15. Medical emergencies.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 303.05 Clinical Program. The clinical program shall give students:

(a) A minimum of 1000 clock hours of clinical experience in all aspects of naturopathic practice; and

(b) Primary care responsibility while being supervised by a licensed doctor.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 304 LICENSURE BY RECIPROCITY

Nat 304.01 Licensure on the Basis of Licensure in another State, District of Columbia, or U.S. Territory. Persons currently licensed as a doctor of naturopathic medicine or as a naturopathic physician in any other state, U.S. Territory, or the District of Columbia shall be eligible to be licensed by reciprocity if:

(a) They meet the requirements of Nat 303 with the exception of the requirement to pass the NPLEX examinations; and

(b) Their jurisdiction of licensure required at the time of their licensure that they pass examinations substantially equivalent, under the standards set forth in Nat 304.02, to the NPLEX examinations.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 304.02 Substantial Equivalence to NPLEX Examinations. In order for an examination to be substantially equivalent to NPLEX examinations the examination shall:

(a) Be the examination required by the regulatory authority issuing the license furnishing the basis for licensure by reciprocity;

(b) Be written and at least 3 hours in duration; and

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 304.03 Application Procedure. The application procedure for licensure by reciprocity shall be that set forth in Nat 302, except that:

(a) Applicants shall not be required to arrange for the submission of NPLEX scores; and

(b) Applicants shall submit, or arrange for the submission of, the following supporting materials in addition to those specified in Nat 302.04:

(1) A photocopy of the applicant's current license or other document authorizing the practice of naturopathic medicine; and

(2) An original signed letter:

a. Sent directly to the board by the authority issuing the applicant's current license or other document of authorization to practice;

b. Confirming the current validity of the applicant's license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine; and

c. Stating that the applicant is in good standing and that there is pending against the applicant neither a complaint of misconduct nor a disciplinary action.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 305 SPECIALTY CERTIFICATION IN ACUPUNCTURE

Nat 305.01 Requirements for Acupuncture Specialty Certification.

(a) A doctor of naturopathic medicine shall not practice acupuncture without first requesting in writing and receiving from the board a certificate of specialty practice in acupuncture.

(b) To be certified an applicant shall:

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Nat 305.02;

(2) Submit to the board official transcripts of courses taken to fulfill the requirements of Nat 305.02(a)(1); and

(3) Arrange for direct transmission to the board of the applicant's scores on the NPLEX acupuncture examination.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 305.02 Eligibility for Specialty Certification in Acupuncture.

(a) To be eligible for certification in acupuncture applicants shall:

(1) Take at least 500 hours of acupuncture training through courses:

a. In acupuncture or oriental medical theory;

b. Consisting of either academics or clinical training; and

c. Given by institutions accredited by CNME or ACAOM; and

(2) Pass the NPLEX acupuncture examination.

(b) The following trainings in acupuncture shall, if complying with (a)(1) above, be credited towards the 500 hours of required training:

(1) Training taken in the course of the applicant's qualification to take the NPLEX acupuncture examination;

(2) Training taken in preparation for licensure in any jurisdiction as a doctor of naturopathic medicine; and

(3) Training taken in preparation for licensure in any jurisdiction as an acupuncturist.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05, EXPIRED: 6-18-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 306 SPECIALTY CERTIFICATION IN NATUROPATHIC CHILDBIRTH

Nat 306.01 Definitions.

(a) “American College of Naturopathic Obstetricians (ACNO)” means a non-profit sponsor of an examination to establish competence in the practices of midwifery and of naturopathic childbirth.

(b) “Naturopathic childbirth” means “naturopathic childbirth” as defined in RSA 328-E:2, VII, namely, “natural childbirth which includes the use of natural obstetrical medicines, ophthalmic antibiotics, obstetrical emergency medicines, and minor surgery including episiotomies, but which does not include the use of forceps delivery, general or spinal anesthesia, cesarean section, or induced abortions.”

(c) “Preceptor” means any of the following practitioners when currently authorized to practice in any United States jurisdiction:

(1) A naturopathic doctor with specialty training in obstetrics or natural childbirth;

(2) A medical doctor with specialty training in obstetrics or natural childbirth; and

(3) An osteopathic doctor with specialty training in obstetrics or natural childbirth.

(d) “Preceptorship” means supervision and guidance by a preceptor in accordance with the requirements of Nat 306.06.

Source. #8514, eff 12-13-05, EXPIRED: 12-13-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 306.02 Certification In Naturopathic Childbirth.

(a) A doctor of naturopathic medicine shall not practice naturopathic childbirth without first requesting in writing and receiving from the board a certificate of specialty practice in naturopathic childbirth.

(b) Such certificate:

(1) Shall not be required to be renewed;

(2) Shall be suspended when the holder’s license to practice as a doctor of naturopathic medicine is suspended; and

(3) Shall be revoked when the holder’s license to practice as a doctor of naturopathic medicine is revoked.

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Nat 306.03;

(2) Submit to the board a letter requesting a certificate; and

(3) Arrange for the direct transmission to the board of the applicant's scores on the childbirth examination sponsored by ACNO.

Source. #8514, eff 12-13-05, EXPIRED: 12-13-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 306.03 Eligibility for Certification in Naturopathic Childbirth. To be eligible for certification in naturopathic childbirth an applicant shall:

(a) Be currently licensed in New Hampshire as a doctor of naturopathic medicine;

(b) Be trained for at least 100 hours through a combination of:

(1) Didactic training meeting the requirements of Nat 306.04; and

(2) Clinical training meeting the requirements of Nat 306.05; and

Source. #8514, eff 12-13-05, EXPIRED: 12-13-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 306.04 Didactic Training. The required didactic training shall be that required by any United States jurisdiction for authorization to practice:

(a) Naturopathic obstetrics;

(b) Nurse midwifery; or

Source. #8514, eff 12-13-05, EXPIRED: 12-13-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 306.05 Clinical Training.

(a) The required clinical training shall be the observation and management of at least 40 births, carried out under one or more preceptorships meeting the requirements of Nat 306.06.

(b) Both the observation and the management of births shall include:

(1) The initial interview and physical examination of the mother;

(2) Prenatal care;

(3) Labor;

(4) Delivery;

(5) Postnatal care of the mother and newborn; and

(6) The keeping of records related to the activities and events listed in (1) through (5) above.

Source. #8514, eff 12-13-05, EXPIRED: 12-13-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 306.06 Preceptorship. Preceptorship shall include the following activities by the preceptor:

(a) Individualized instruction;

(b) Close direct supervision; and

Source. #8514, eff 12-13-05, EXPIRED: 12-13-13

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 307 FEES

Nat 307.01 Fees for Initial Licensure and Renewal of License.

(a) The initial license fee shall be $300.00.

(b) The renewal license fee shall be $300.00.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8374, eff 6-18-05; ss by #8855, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

CHAPTER Nat 400 CONTINUED STATUS

PART Nat 401 DEFINITIONS

Nat 401.01 Meanings of Terms. The following terms shall have the following meanings:

(a) “American College of Naturopathic Obstetricians (ACNO)” means a national professional organization which sponsors an examination for certification of naturopathic obstetricians.

(b) “Letter of concern” means a written letter from the board drawing the licensee’s attention to specific acts or omissions that could place the licensee at risk of future disciplinary action. A letter of concern is non-disciplinary, confidential, and is sent to the licensee following a complaint and investigation pursuant to RSA 328-E:14-a.

(c) “National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine (NCCAOM)” means a non-profit organization with the mission to establish, assess, and promote recognized standards of competence and safety in acupuncture and oriental medicine.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 402 RENEWAL

Nat 402.01 Biennial Renewal.

(a) Licensees shall renew their licenses to practice naturopathic medicine biennially.

(b) Licensees wishing to renew their licenses to practice naturopathic medicine shall do so by submitting renewal application materials as follows:

(1) A completed renewal application form as described in Nat 402.05;

(2) The supporting materials specified by Nat 402.06; and

(3) The renewal fee specified by Nat 307.01(b).

(c) The completed renewal application form and the supporting materials shall be submitted no earlier than 75 days and no later than 30 days before the expiration date of the license being renewed.

(d) The licenses of those who submit their application materials within the time period set forth in (c) above shall not lapse until the board has taken action on their renewal.

(e) The licenses of those who do not submit their application materials within the time period set forth in (c) above shall lapse on the license expiration dates. Holders of such lapsed licenses shall not practice naturopathic medicine until their licenses have been reinstated by the board.

Source. paras (a)-(b), #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14; paras (c)-(e), amd by #8856, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 402.02 Processing of Applications.

(a) If the board, for the purpose of determining applicants' qualifications for renewal licensure, requires any information, materials or documents additional to those first submitted it shall:

(1) So notify the renewal applicants by certified mail within 10 days of receipt of the renewal application; and

(2) Specify the information and materials which the renewal applicants are required to submit.

(b) If the renewal applicants do not submit the requested additional information and materials within 10 days of receipt of the request:

(1) Their renewal applications shall be denied; and

(2) They shall have the option to apply for initial licensure pursuant to Nat 300.

(c) Within 30 days of the date that the board has timely received the materials specified by Nat 402.01(b) and any information, materials and documents requested pursuant to (a) above the board shall:

(1) Renew the applicants' licenses;

(2) Renew their licenses on condition pursuant to Nat 402.03(b); or

(3) Notify the applicants by certified mail of the board's intent to deny their applications for license renewal.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 402.03 Renewal of Licenses and Renewal of Licenses on Condition.

(a) The board shall renew the licenses of renewal applicants who:

(1) Have met the procedural requirements for renewal;

(2) Are not subject to denial pursuant to Nat 402.04; and

(3) Have completed at the time of submitting their renewal packets all of the continuing education hours that were obtained within the two-year renewal period, on condition the continuing education hours have not previously been submitted.

(b) The board shall renew on condition the licenses of renewal applicants who:

(1) Have met the procedural requirements for renewal; and

(2) Are not subject to denial pursuant to Nat 402.04;

(c) The condition placed on the renewal licenses of applicants who still need to complete continuing education at the time of renewal shall be that the education requirements set forth in Nat 405 be completed within the time period set forth in Nat 402.07(a).

(d) When individuals whose licenses have been renewed on condition report and document the timely completion of continuing education requirements, the board shall notify them that the condition on their licenses has been met.

(e) If such individuals fail to report and document the timely completion of continuing education requirements even though they have completed the requirements, the board shall, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, suspend the licenses which were renewed on condition.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 402.04 Denial of Licensure Renewal.

(a) The board shall give notice of its intent to deny the applications for licensure renewal submitted by applicants who:

(1) Do not possess a good moral and professional reputation as evidenced by the answers to the questions in Nat 402.05(e) and Nat 402.05(i)(1)-(4) and any related documents submitted pursuant to Nat 402.06(a) and (b);

(2) Are physically or mentally unfit to practice naturopathic medicine, as evidenced by the answers to the questions in Nat 402.05(i)(5) and (6) and any related documents submitted pursuant to Nat 402.06(b);

(3) Have had a license, certification or registration to practice naturopathic medicine refused, revoked or suspended and not reinstated by any other state or country for reasons which relate to the applicant’s ability to skillfully and safely practice naturopathic medicine; or

(4) Have not complied with the continuing education requirements of Nat 405.02.

(b) Applicants may challenge the board's intended denial of renewal of licensure through a hearing if they make a written request for a hearing within 30 days of the date of receipt of the board's notice of intent.

(1) Not renew their licenses; and

(2) Revoke any previously issued specialty certifications in acupuncture and naturopathic childbirth.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 402.05 Two-Part Application Form.

(a) Applicants for renewal of licensure shall complete, sign and date a 2-part renewal application form provided by the board.

(b) The information entered on both parts of the renewal application form shall be typewritten or legibly printed in ink.

(c) Renewal applicants shall complete the renewal application form by completing in writing or by check mark, as applicable.

(d) On the first part of the application form renewal applicants shall provide the following information:

(1) First name, middle initial, and last name;

(2) License number;

(3) Email address;

(4) An indication as to whether the renewal applicant is currently in practice;

(5) An indication as to whether the renewal applicant is renewing a specialty license;

(6) Business or other mailing address by name of business, if any, street number and name, city or town, state, and zip code; and

(7) Business telephone number, if any.

(e) Also on the first part of the renewal application form applicants shall indicate, using the “yes” and “no” boxes provided:

(1) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have been refused a professional license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine by a regulatory body of any state, country, or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(2) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have had a professional license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine revoked or suspended by a regulatory body of any state, country, or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(3) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have had disciplinary action other than action reportable under paragraphs (1) and (2) taken against them by any state, country or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(4) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have entered into a settlement agreement or consent decree to resolve a complaint of misconduct or a disciplinary charge;

(5) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, any of their professional licenses have been the subject of a disciplinary proceeding, settlement agreement, or consent decree undertaken or issued by any professional licensing authority in any jurisdiction;

(6) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, any disciplinary action has been taken against them by any hospital or other health care facility, or international, national, state, or local professional association;

(7) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, any malpractice claim or a malpractice law suit has been brought against them;

(8) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, certification by NCCAOM or ACNO has been suspended or revoked; and

(9) Whether, since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have been convicted of a felony or a misdemeanor.

(f) Renewal applicants shall sign and date the first part of the renewal application form below the following statement preprinted on the form:

“(1) The information provided on both parts of the renewal application form and the documentation provided to support the renewal application are true, accurate, complete and unaltered; and

(2) The renewal applicant acknowledges that, pursuant to RSA 641:3, the knowing making of a false statement on the renewal application form is punishable as a misdemeanor.”

(g) A renewal applicant's signature as set forth in (f) above shall constitute the renewal applicant's acknowledgement of his or her understanding that any untrue, inaccurate, incomplete or altered information made knowingly on either part of the renewal application form or included in the supporting materials is grounds for punishment pursuant to RSA 641:3.

(h) On the second part of the renewal application form, renewal applicants shall provide:

(1) Their full name;

(2) Their home addresses by street number and name, city or town, state, and zip code; and

(3) Their home telephone numbers.

(i) On the second part of the renewal application form renewal applicants shall indicate, using the “yes” and “no” boxes provided, whether:

(1) They are now being or anticipate being investigated for possible misconduct by a regulatory body of any state or country or other regulatory jurisdiction;

(3) Since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have voluntarily surrendered a license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine, or allowed such a license or authorization to lapse, to avoid disciplinary investigation or action;

(4) Since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have been investigated for possible misconduct by a hospital or other health care facility, or international, national, state, or local professional association;

(5) Since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have developed any physical, mental, addictive or other condition that negatively affects their ability to practice naturopathic medicine;

(6) Since the issuance of the license being renewed, they have developed any physical, mental, addictive, or other condition for which continuing remedial or therapeutic action is required to ensure their continuing ability to practice naturopathic medicine; and

(7) They carry a DEA number in New Hampshire and, if so, the number itself.

(j) If the applicant answers “yes” to any of the questions described in (i)(1)-(6) above, he or she must provide a written explanation of the circumstances including any relevant documentation.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 402.06 Supporting Materials.

(a) Renewal applicants shall submit the following supporting materials:

(1) If any responses to the questions set forth in Nat 402.05(e) are affirmative, a complete and detailed written statement of the circumstances;

(2) If any responses to the questions set forth in Nat 402.05(i) are affirmative, a complete and detailed statement of the circumstances, written on a sheet of paper separate from the sheet of paper used for the statement required by (a) above;

(3) The individualized continuing education report described in Nat 402.08;

(4) As attachments to the individualized continuing education report, photocopies of transcripts or certificates of attendance complying with Nat 402.07(d) documenting any continuing education completed since the licensee last submitted information about continuing education on the individualized continuing education report; and

(5) If not previously supplied to the board, the applicant's social security number written on a separate sheet of paper which is:

a. Provided by the board; and

b. Includes the following preprinted notice:

"Information About The Request for Your Social Security Number

(b) The information provided by the applicant described in (h) above shall not be used for any reason except the enforcement of child support laws pursuant to 42 USC 666(a)(13) and RSA 161-B:11.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 402.07 Two-Year Renewal for the Completion of Continuing Education and Reporting Continuing Education.

(a) Pursuant to RSA 328-E:13, II, applicants for renewal licensure shall complete the continuing education described in Nat 405 during every 2-year renewal cycle beginning with the issuance date of the first license issued to them by the board.

(b) Continuing education completed since initial licensure shall be reported in a cumulative fashion on the individualized continuing education report form described in Nat 402.08.

(c) Whenever a licensee submits a renewal packet, the licensee shall include in the packet the licensee's individualized continuing education report form updated with information about the continuing education taken since the licensee last submitted such information.

(d) Whenever a licensee submits a renewal packet, the continuing education being reported for the first time on the individualized continuing education report form shall be documented by the following attachments:

(1) A photocopy of a transcript showing the course(s) taken and the credit hours assigned; or

(2) A photocopy of a certificate of attendance or similar document showing:

a. The name of the applicant;

b. The name of the course if descriptive of the course contents, or other description of the course;

c. The beginning and ending dates of the course;

d. The credit hours assigned; and

e. The signature of the course instructor or a representative of the course provider.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 402.08 Individualized Continuing Education Report.

(a) The board shall provide 3 individualized continuing education report forms as follows:

(1) Form A for reporting completed continuing education hours excluding hours in:

a. Pharmacology;

b. Pharmacognosy;

c. Acupuncture; and

d. Naturopathic childbirth;

(2) Form B for reporting completed continuing education hours in pharmacology and pharmacognosy; and

(3) Form C for reporting completed continuing education hours in naturopathic childbirth and acupuncture.

(b) The applicant shall provide his or her name and license number in the space provided at the top of each form submitted.

(c) The information about the continuing education the renewal applicant has completed since last updating the form shall be:

(1) The name of the course;

(2) The location of the course;

(3) The presenter or sponsor of the course;

(4) The beginning and ending dates of the course;

(5) The credit hours attributable to the course; and

(6) The total number of credit hours being reported at the time the form is completed.

(d) The renewal applicant shall sign and date each form next to the following preprinted statement:

“I certify that the above information is true and accurate and I understand that this account of completed continuing education is available to the Board of Naturopathic Examiners.”

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 402.09 Effect of Signature. The effect of the renewal applicant's signature written in accordance with Nat 402.08(c) shall be:

(a) The renewal applicant's certification that the information on the signed form is true and accurate; and

(b) The renewal applicant's acknowledgement that the information on the signed form is available to the board.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 403 REINSTATEMENT OF LICENSES

Nat 403.01 Reinstatement of Lapsed Licenses.

(a) The board shall, after a minimum period of 90 days, reinstate licenses lapsed pursuant to Nat 402.01(e) if:

(1) The licensee submits the renewal application materials required to be submitted by Nat 402.01(b);

(2) The licensee is not subject to license denial pursuant to Nat 402.04; and

(3) The licensee has met the requirements of Nat 402.03(a)(3).

(b) Individuals whose licenses have lapsed pursuant to Nat 402.01(e) shall not practice naturopathic medicine until the board has reinstated their licenses.

Source. #8680, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 403.02 Reinstatement of Licenses Suspended for Failure to Report or Failure to Document Timely Completion of Continuing Education Requirements.

(a) The board shall reinstate licenses suspended pursuant to Nat 402.03(e) at its first regularly scheduled meeting following the date that the office of the board has received:

(1) A letter from the individual wishing reinstatement of license stating that all continuing education requirements have been timely met; and

(2) Documentation of that fact made in accordance with Nat 402.07(d)(1) and (2).

(b) Individuals whose licenses have been suspended pursuant to Nat 402.03(e) shall not practice naturopathic medicine until the board has reinstated their licenses.

Source. #8680, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 403.03 No Reinstatement of Licenses Refused Renewal Pursuant to Nat 402.04(a)(1), (a)(2) or (a)(3).

(a) The board shall not reinstate the licenses of individuals who have, after notice and an opportunity to be heard, been denied licensure renewal for any of the reasons stated in Nat 402.04(a)(1), (a)(2) or (a)(3).

(b) Such individuals shall have the option to apply at any time for a new license in accordance with the requirements of Nat 300.

Source. #8680, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 403.04 Reinstatement of Licenses Refused Renewal Pursuant to Nat 402.04(a)(4).

(a) The board shall reinstate the licenses of individuals whose licenses were refused renewal pursuant to Nat 402.04(a)(4) if such individuals:

(1) Are not subject to license denial pursuant to Nat 402.04(a)(1), (a)(2) or a)(3);

(2) Complete their outstanding continuing education obligation(s) within the applicable time period set forth in (b) below;

(3) Meet the application requirements set forth in (c) below; and

(4) Do not practice naturopathic medicine until the board has reinstated their licenses.

(b) Outstanding continuing education obligations(s) shall be completed:

(1) Within 180 days of the board's refusal to renew licensure; or

(2) After such deadline if the reinstatement applicant was unable both to practice naturopathic medicine and to complete his or her continuing education for at least 180 days as a result of:

a. His or her disability, disease, or severe illness;

b. The death, disability, disease, or severe illness of the reinstatement applicant's natural or adoptive mother, father, sister or brother;

c. The death, disability, disease, or severe illness of the reinstatement applicant's guardian or foster parent;

d. The death, disability, disease, or severe illness of the reinstatement applicant's legal ward or foster child; or

e. Other circumstances beyond his or her control which prevented him or her from practicing naturopathic medicine and meeting outstanding continuing education requirements.

(1) Requests licensure reinstatement;

(2) States that his or her outstanding continuing education obligations were completed:

a. Within 180 days of the board's refusal to renew licensure; or

b. Later than 180 days of the board's refusal to renew licensure because of one of the reasons listed in (b)(2) above; and

(3) Contains documentation in accordance with Nat 402.07(d)(1) and (2) of completion of the required continuing education.

Source. #8680, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

PART Nat 404 REVOCATION, SUSPENSION AND OTHER SANCTIONS

Nat 404.01 Misconduct. Misconduct shall be:

(a) Practicing, or offering to practice, beyond the scope of practice set forth in RSA 328-E:4;

(b) Violation of the formulary determined by the council on doctors of naturopathic medicine formulary pursuant to RSA 328-E:16, III;

(1) Advertising oneself, or in any way holding oneself out, as qualified to practice naturopathic medicine or practicing naturopathic medicine, without being currently licensed by the board;

(2) Advertising oneself, or holding oneself out, as qualified to practice naturopathic medicine or practicing naturopathic medicine after receiving notice that the license to do so has been revoked; or

(3) Advertising or calling oneself, or allowing oneself to be advertised or called, a physician or doctor, other than in the following manner:

a. Doctor (name), naturopath;

b. (Name), doctor of naturopathy;

c. (Name), naturopathic doctor; or

d. (Name), doctor of naturopathic medicine;

(d) The knowing provision of false information, or knowing failure to disclose a material fact, in the course of applying for initial, renewal or other licensure by any healthcare regulatory board in any jurisdiction;

(e) The habitual use of intoxicants or the use of illegal substances;

(f) Practicing naturopathic medicine when afflicted with a psychiatric disorder, a disease, or a disability that makes practicing naturopathic medicine dangerous to public health or safety;

(g) Gross or repeated negligence in practicing:

(1) Naturopathic medicine;

(2) Naturopathic acupuncture under certification pursuant to Nat 305; or

(3) Naturopathic childbirth under certification pursuant to Nat 306;

(h) Intentionally injuring a patient while practicing:

(1) Naturopathic medicine;

(2) Naturopathic acupuncture under certification pursuant to Nat 305; or

(3) Naturopathic childbirth under certification pursuant to Nat 306;

(i) Employing an unlicensed person to practice any healthcare profession which requires licensing for the practice to be lawful;

(j) Knowingly allowing the unlicensed practice within the licensee's office of any healthcare profession which requires licensing for the practice to be lawful;

(k) Willful or repeated violation of any rule of the board;

(l) Falsification of patient records, insurance reports, or public health records;

(m) Failure to cooperate with an investigation conducted by the board;

(n) Abuse of patients, including:

(1) Psychological abuse;

(2) Physical abuse; and

(3) Sexual activity with, or sexually suggestive actions directed towards, any patient who is not the spouse or significant other of the licensee;

(o) Threatening to engage in behavior described in (n) above;

(p) Engaging in false, misleading, or deceptive advertising;

(q) Disciplinary action by any other domestic or foreign jurisdiction against that jurisdiction's authorization to practice naturopathic medicine, if the conduct calling for the disciplinary action would, if committed in this state, constitute misconduct;

(r) Surrender by the licensee of his or her license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine in any other domestic or foreign jurisdiction, if the purpose of the surrender is the avoidance of disciplinary action described in (q) above;

(s) Denial of a license or other authorization to practice naturopathic medicine by any other domestic or foreign jurisdiction, if the denial is based on conduct which would, if committed in this state, constitute misconduct; and

(t) Accepting or performing professional responsibilities which the licensee knows, or has reason to know, he or she is not competent to perform.

Source. #8857, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 404.02 Sanctions. Disciplinary measures available to the board to sanction misconduct shall be:

(a) Revocation of license or specialty certification;

(b) A limitation placed on the license or specialty certification, including:

(1) Prohibition on the use of specified substances listed in the formulary;

(2) Restriction on the mode of delivery of specified substances listed in the formulary;

(3) Prohibition on treating patients:

a. Between birth and age 18;

b. Aged 70 or older; or

c. Of any other class which can be objectively described;

(4) The requirement that the licensee shall practice for a specified period of time under the supervision of:

a. Another licensee without a specialty certification if the sanctioned licensee is without a specialty certification; or

b. Another licensee certified in the same specialty as the sanctioned licensee if such licensee is certified in a specialty; and

(5) Any other limitation designed to remediate or to take into account the deficiency or condition in the licensee which appears to have caused the misconduct;

(c) Suspension of the license or specialty certification for no longer than one year, including suspension conditioned on:

(1) Participation in a specified mental or physical health treatment program;

(2) The successful completion of a specified rehabilitative program;

(3) Completion of a specified period of counseling;

(4) The successful completion of a specified professional assistance program; or

(5) Participation any other specified program designed to overcome the deficiency or condition in the licensee which appears to have caused the misconduct; and

(d) Denial of renewal or reinstatement of license or specialty certification.

Source. #8857, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 404.03 Procedure for Imposition of Sanctions. Other than immediate license suspension authorized by RSA 541-A:30, III, the board shall impose disciplinary sanctions only:

(a) After prior notice to the licensee in accordance with Nat 208.01 and opportunity for the licensee to be heard; or

(b) By agreement in a settlement between the board and the licensee made pursuant to Nat 213.

Source. #8857, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 404.04 Revocation of License.

(a) Pursuant to RSA 328-E:14, I, the board shall revoke a license when the licensee has been convicted of a misdemeanor for any statutory violations described in Nat 404.01(c).

(b) The board shall revoke a license when the revocation is agreed upon by the board and the licensee in a settlement made pursuant to Nat 213.

Source. #8857, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 404.05 Determinations Required for Sanctions.

(a) In instances of misconduct other than those described in Nat 404.04, the board shall engage in the following process to determine which sanction or combination of sanctions, if any, to impose:

(1) First determine the nature of the act or omission constituting the misconduct done by the licensee;

(2) Next determine whether the misconduct has one or more of the characteristics listed in (b) below; and

(3) Finally, apply the standards in (c) below.

(b) The characteristics shall be:

(1) The misconduct actually caused physical or mental harm to the patient or another person;

(2) The misconduct had the potential to cause physical or mental harm to the patient or another person;

(3) The misconduct repeated earlier misconduct done by the licensee, as determined by:

a. An earlier hearing;

b. An earlier settlement agreement predicated on the same misconduct; or

c. An admission by the licensee;

(4) The misconduct was not the first misconduct by the licensee, as determined by:

a. An earlier hearing;

b. An earlier settlement agreement predicated on misconduct; or

c. An admission by the licensee; and

(5) The misconduct was intentional rather than the result of negligence or inadvertence.

(1) From the list in Nat 404.02; and

(2) By choosing, in light of the characteristics determined in the step described in (a)(2) above, the sanction most likely to:

a. Protect public health and safety;

b. Prevent future misconduct by the licensee;

c. Take into account any acknowledgement of fault by the licensee and any cooperation by the licensee with the board's investigation of misconduct;

d. Correct any attitudinal, educational, or other deficiencies which led to the licensee's misconduct;

e. Encourage the responsible practice of naturopathic medicine, naturopathic childbirth, and naturopathic acupuncture, as applicable; and

f. Demonstrate to the licensee and the public the board's intention to ensure that its licensees practice in accordance with applicable law and the public welfare.

(d) If the board chooses not to select a sanction under (c) above because the board has determined that any sanction would be too harsh, the board shall either:

(1) Dismiss the matter; or

(2) Issue a confidential letter of concern to the licensee.

Source. #8857, eff 3-27-07, EXPIRED: 3-27-15

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 405 CONTINUING EDUCATION

Nat 405.01 Definitions. The following terms shall have the following meanings:

(a) “Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME)” means a non-profit organization with the mission to identify, develop, and promote standards for quality continuing medical education through the accreditation of providers of continuing medical education for physicians and related professionals and through the authorization of such accreditation by designated state and territorial member societies;

(b) “Association of Specialized and Professional Accreditors (ASPA)” means a nationwide association of specialized and professional accrediting organizations which acts as a forum for such accrediting organizations and advances their knowledge, skills, good practices and ethical commitments;

(c) “Ayurvedic medicine” means the complementary and alternative system of medicine practiced primarily in the Indian subcontinent for 5,000 years, including dietary advice, herbal remedies, and yoga;

(d) “Credit hour” means 50 minutes of active teaching;

(e) “Pharmacognosy" means the subfield of pharmacology which studies natural drugs, including their biological and chemical components, botanical sources, and other characteristics;

(f) “Tai chi” means a form of meditative exercise using methodically slow circular stretching movements and positions of body balance;

(g) “Traditional Chinese medicine” means the complementary and alternative system of medicine used in east asian cultures, including acupuncture, dietary advice, herbal medicine, qi gong, and tai chi; and

(h) “Qi gong” means a component of traditional Chinese medicine combining movement, meditation, and the regulation of breathing to enhance the flow of vital energy in the body, improve blood circulation and enhance immune function.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17

Nat 405.02 Continuing Education Requirements.

(a) Licensees shall complete 45 credit hours of continuing education during the 2-year renewal cycle in accordance with (b), (c) and (d) below.

(b) Of the required 45 credit hours at least 12 shall be credit hours in pharmacology or pharmacognosy, and at least 3 shall be education in pain management or addiction disorders, or a combination thereof, as required by RSA 328-E:13, II.

(c) If licensees hold specialty certificates in naturopathic childbirth or acupuncture, at least 12 of the required 45 credit hours shall be attributable to courses specifically related to the licensees' fields of specialty.

(d) The required 45 credit hours shall be attributable to the courses and types of courses set forth in Nat 405.03.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 405.03 Courses.

(a) The board shall attribute continuing education credit hours to courses:

(1) Designed to add to the previous education of the renewal applicant by focusing on current developments, skills, procedures, or treatment in naturopathic medicine;

(2) Sponsored or certified by:

a. A national or state naturopathic medical society; or

b. A college, university, or other educational entity described in (b) below; and

(3) Covering one or more of the topics described in (c) below.

(b) For the board to attribute continuing education credit hours to their courses, colleges, universities, and other educational entities shall be accredited by:

(1) Members of ASPA;

(2) ACCME; or

(3) One of the following regional accreditors:

a. The Middle States Association of Colleges and Schools;

b. The New England Association of Schools and Colleges;

c. The North Central Association of Colleges and Schools;

d. The Northwest Association of Schools and Colleges;

e. The Southern Association of Colleges and Schools; or

f. The Western Association of Schools and Colleges.

(1) Human anatomy;

(2) Physiology;

(3) Biochemistry;

(4) Pathology;

(5) Pharmacology;

(6) Pharmacognosy;

(7) Diagnostic methods;

(8) Botanical medicine;

(9) Homeopathy;

(10) Nutrition;

(11) Naturopathic physical medicine;

(12) Psychological counseling;

(13) Organ systems;

(14) Cardiology;

(15) Dermatology;

(16) Endocrinology;

(17) Eyes, ears, nose, and throat;

(18) Gastroenterology;

(19) Orthopedics;

(20) Neurology;

(21) Gynecology;

(22) Natural childbirth;

(23) Obstetrics;

(24) Pediatrics;

(25) Geriatrics;

(26) Medical emergencies;

(27) Acupuncture;

(28) Traditional Chinese medicine; and

(29) Ayurvedic medicine.

(d) If a current licensee chooses to take, and passes, the jurisprudence examination required of new applicants under Nat 410.01, the licensee shall be granted 2 credit hours of general continuing education credits. Licensees may obtain these 2 credit hours only once per renewal period.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06, EXPIRED: 7-11-14

New. #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 406 FORMULARY

Nat 406.01 Formulary. Pursuant to RSA 328-E:16, III, the formulary for licensees shall be as follows:

(a) Amino acids and peptides, including but not limited to:

(1) Acetyl Carnitine;

(2) EDTA;

(3) GABA;

(4) Glutathione;

(5) Levocarnitine;

(6) Succinic Acid (DMSA); and

(7) Tryptophan;

(b) Animal preparations and their derivatives, including but not limited to:

(1) Adrenal;

(2) Thymus;

(3) Thyroid;

(4) Fish oils, including derived mega-3 fatty acids such as Ethyl eicosapentaenoic acid, docosahexaenoic acid, and omega-3 carboxylic acids;

(5) Hyaluronic acid; and

(6) Bile acids, including deoxycholic acid;

(1) Allopurinol;

(2) Colchicine; and

(3) Probenecid;

(d) H₁ and H₂ antihistamine-class agents;

(e) The following anti-leukotriene agents:

(1) Montelukast; and

(2) Zafirlukast;

(f) The following anti-hyperglycemic agents:

(1) The alpha glucosidase inhibitor Acarbose;

(2) The biguanide Metformin;

(3) Sulfonylurea-class agents;

(4) Thiazolidinedione-class agents (TZDs);

(5) Sodium-glucose transport protein 2 (SGLT-2) inhibitors;

(6) Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors;

(7) Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonists; and

(8) Synthetic and human insulin;

(g) The following anti-infective agents:

(1) The following antibacterial agents:

a. Aminoglycosides, including but not limited to:

1. Gentamicin;

2. Kanamycin sulfate; and

3. Tobramycin;

b. The following beta-lactam antibiotics:

1. Cephalosporins, including but not limited to:

(i) Cefaclor;

(ii) Cefadroxil;

(iii) Cefdinir;

(iv) Ceditoren;

(v) Cefibuten;

(vi) Cefixime;

(vii) Cefonicid sodium;

(viii) Cepodoxime proxetil;

(ix) Cefprozil;

(x) Ceftibuten;

(xi) Cefuroxime;

(xii) Cephalexin; and

(xiii) Cephradine; and

2. Penicillins, including but not limited to:

(i) Amoxicillin and clavulanate;

(ii) Amoxicillin;

(iii) Ampicillin and sulbactam;

(iv) Ampicillin;

(v) Bacampicillin;

(vi) Cloxacillin;

(vii) Dicloxacillin;

(viii) Oxacillin; and

(ix) Penicillin;

c. Macrolides and ketolides, including but not limited to:

1. Azithromycin;

2. Clarithromycin;

3. Dirithromycin;

4. Erythromycins;

5. Telithromycin; and

6. Troleandomycin;

d. Quinolones, including but not limited to:

1. Ciprofloxacin;

2. Levofloxacin; and

3. Ofloxacin;

e. The following sulfonamides:

1. Sulfonamide;

2. Sofamethoxazole;

3. Trimethoprim; and

4. Dapsone;

f. Tetracyclines, including but not limited to:

1. Demeclocycline hydrochloride;

2. Doxycycline;

3. Minocycline;

4. Oxytetracycline; and

5. Tetracycline;

g. The following miscellaneous antibacterials:

1. Bacitracin;

2. Clindamycin;

3. Colistimethate;

4. Lincomycin;

5. Novobiocin;

6. Polymyxin B Sulfate;

7. Spectinomycin;

8. Vancomycin;

9. Daptomycin; and

(2) Antifungals, such as:

a. Polyene;

b. Amphotericin B;

c. Nystatin;

d. Fluconazole;

e. Ketoconazole;

f. Clotrimazole;

g. Terbinafine; and

h. Itraconazole;

(3) The following anti-virals:

a. Valcyclovir;

b. Acyclovir;

c. Famciclovir; and

d. Oseltamivir;

(4) Anti-helmetics, such as:

a. Mebendazole;

b. Thiabendazole;

c. Nitazoxanide;

d. Albendazole;

e. Ivermectin; and

f. Praziquantel;

(5) The following antitubercular and antimycobacterial agents:

a. Aminosalicylic acid;

b. Cycloserine;

c. Pyrazinamidel

d. Rifabutin; and

e. Rifampin;

(6) The following antiprotozoal and antiparasitic agents:

a. The halogenated 8-hydroxyquinoline iodoquinol;

b. The following nitroimidazoles:

1. Metronidazole; and

2. Tinidazole;

c. The following quinolines:

1. Chloroquine;

2. Hydroxychloroquine;

3. Mefloquine; and

4. Quinine sulfate; and

d. The hydroxynaphthoquinone atovaquone; and

(7) The following miscellaneous anti-infective agents:

a. Mupirocin;

b. Permethrin; and

c. Pyrethrins;

(h) The following anti-thyroid agent thionamides (thioureylenes) :

(1) Methimazole; and

(2) Propylthiouracil;

(i) The following autonomic agents:

(1) The following cholinergic agents:

a. The following antimuscarinic agents:

1. Atropine;

2. Atropine sulfate;

3. Belladonna;

4. Flavoxate;

5. Homatropine hydrobromide;

6. Hyoscyamine;

7. Methscopolamine; and

8. Scopolamine;

b. The muscarinic receptor agonist pilocarpine;

c. Nicotinic receptor agonists:

1. Nicotine; and

2. Varenicline; and

d. The following acetylcholinesterase inhibitors:

1. Donepezil;

2. Galantamine; and

3. Rivastigmine;

(2) The following ergot derivatives:

a. Ergonovine maleate; and

b. Methergine;

(3) The following sympathomimetics:

a. Ephedrine;

b. Epinephrine, including autoinject forms;

c. Pseudoephedrine;

d. Midodrine;

e. Clonidine;

f. Guanfacine;

g. Albuterol;

h. Formoterol; and

i. Salmetrol;

(4) The following sympatholytic agents:

a. The following alpha adrenergic blocking agents:

1. Yohimbine; and

2. Tamulosin; and

b. Beta adrenergic blocking agents, including but not limited to:

1. Atenolol;

2. Bisoprolol;

3. Metoprolol;

4. Propranolol; and

5. Timolol; and

(5) The following agents for ADHD/Narcolepsy treatment:

a. Methylphenidate;

b. Dexmethylphenidate;

c. Amphetamine/dextroamphetamine;

d. Dextroamphetamine;

e. Lisdexamfetamine;

f. Atomoxetine; and

g. Modafinil;

(j) The following biologicals:

(1) The following biological response modifiers:

a. Candida and tricophyton extracts; and

b. Rho(D) immune globulins;

(2) The following skin test antigens:

a. Purified protein derivative tuberculin tests;

b. Candida albicans skin test antigen; and

c. Coccidioides immitis spherule derived skin test antigen;

(3) Blood typing serum;

(4) Blood and tissue derived products;

(5) Enzymes, including but not limited to:

a. Amylase;

b. Collagenase;

c. Desoxyribonuclease;

d. Fribinolysin;

e. Hyaluronidase;

f. Lipase;

g. Pancrelipase; and

h. Papain;

(6) Electrolytes and fluid replacements, including but not limited to:

a. Saline solutions;

b. Sterile water;

c. D5W;

d. Lactated ringers solution; and

e. Sodium bicarbonate;

(7) Hormones as described in Nat 406.01(p);

(8) Immune globulins;

(9) Prostaglandins and prostaglandin analogs, including but not limited to:

a. Alprostadil;

b. Bimatoprost;

c. Dinoprostone;

d. Iloprost; and

e. Misoprostal; and

(10) Botolinum toxin derivatives:

a. Onabotilinumtoxin A;

b. Abobotulinumtoxin A; and

c. Incobotilinumtoxin A;

(k) Botanical preparations, with the following exceptions::

(1) Legend or controlled Digitalis species derivatives;

(2) Legend or controlled Coca species derivatives;

(3) Legend or controlled Vinca species derivatives;

(4) Legend or controlled Taxus species derivatives;

(5) Legend or controlled Rauwolfia species derivatives; and

(6) Derivatives of Papaver somniferum unless otherwise specified;

(l) The following cardiovascular agents:

(1) The following antilipemics:

a. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors, such as:

1. Atorvastatin;

2. Fluvastatin;

3. Lovastatin;

4. Pravastatin; and

5. Simvastatin;

b. Cholestyramine; and

c. Colesevelam;

(2) The following anti-angina, piperazine derivative, metabolism modifiers, or p-FOX inhibitors;

a. Ranolazine; and

b. Trimetazidine;

(3) The following anti-angina nitrates:

a. Nitroglycerin;

b. Isosorbide dinatrate; and

c. Isosobide mononitrate;

(4) Dihydropyridine-class calcium channel blockers;

(5) The following non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers:

a. Diltiazem; and

b. Verapamil;

(6) Angotensin converting enzyme inhibitors;

(7) Angiotensin II receptor blockers;

(8) The following diuretics:

a. Chlorthalidone;

b. Hydrochlorothiazide;

c. Epleronone; and

d. Spironolactone; and

(9) The following anti-coagulant agents:

a. Heparin for in-office use;

b. Heparin flushes;

c. Warfarin;

d. Apixaban; and

e. Rivaroxaban;

(m) The following central nervous system agents:

(1) The following anticonvulsant and antipeptic agents:

a. Gabapentin;

b. Tiagabine;

c. Pregabalin;

d. Carbamazepine;

e. Oxcarbazepine;

f. Lamotrigine; and

g. Toiramate;

(2) The following antispasmodics:

a. Baclofen;

b. Cyclobenzaprine;

c. Methocarbamol; and

d. Tizanidine;

(3) The following anxiolytics, sedatives and hypnotics:

a. The following benzodiazepines;

1. Alprozolam;

2. Chlordiazepoxide;

3. Clobazam;

4. Clonazepam;

5. Diazepam;

6. Lorazepam; and

7. Temazapam;

b. The following non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic agents:

1. The imidazopyridine agent Zolpidem;

2. The cyclopyrrolone agent Eszopiclone;

3. Suvorexant; and

4. Ramelteon;

c. The anti-manic agent Lithium; and

d. The anxiolytic Buspirone; and

(4) Antidepressants for FDA approved age groups:

a. The following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs):

1. Citalopram;

2. Escitalopram;

3. Fluoxetine;

4. Paroxetine; and

5. Sertraline;

b. Serotonin-norepinephirene reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs):

1. Duloxetine;

2. Desvenlafaxine; and

3. Venlafaxine; and

c. The following tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs):

1. Amitriptyline;

2. Doxepin;

3. Imipramine;

4. Nortriptyline; and

5. Clomipramine;

(n) The following erectile dysfunction agents:

(1) Tadalafil; and

(2) Sildenafil;

(o) Homeopathic preparations and their derivatives including both sterile injectable and non-injectable dosage forms;

(p) Hormones such as:

(1) Adrenal hormones, such as:

a. Aldosterone;

b. DHEA;

c. Epinephrine;

d. Pregnenalone; and

e. Synthetic glucocorticoids such as:

1. Betamethasone;

2. Cortisone acetate;

3. Dexamethasone;

4. Triamcinolone and Triamcinolone acetonide;

5. Methylprednisolone and Prednisolone;

6. Prednisone; and

7. Hydrocortisone;

(2) Selective estrogen-receptor modulators (SERMs), and anti-estrogens or estrogen antagonists, such as:

a. Clomiphene;

b. Tamoxifen;

c. Toremifene; and

d. Raloxifene; and

(3) Gonadal hormones, such as:

a. Conjugated estrogens;

b. Estrogen;

c. Estradiol;

d. Estriol;

e. Estrone;

f. Estropipate;

g. Ethinyl estradiol;

h. HCG;

i. Progesterone;

j. Quinestrol; and

k. Testosterone;

(4) Thyroid hormones, such as:

a. Levothyroxine;

b. Liothyronine;

c. Natural dessicated thyroid hormones; and

d. Calcium;

(5) Pituitary hormones, such as:

a. ACTH;

b. Growth hormones; and

c. Oxytocin; and

(6) Hormonal modifiers, such as:

a. Dutasteride;

b. Finasteride; and

c. Anastrazole;

(q) Antitussives, such as:

(1) Codeine for cough;

(2) Guafenesin; and

(3) Benzonatate;

(r) Local anesthetics, including both injectable and non-injectable dosage form such as:

(1) Amino esters for in-office use:

a. Procaine;

b. Chloroprocaine;

c. Tetracaine; and

d. Benzocaine;

(2) Amino amides, for in-office use:

a. Lidocaine;

b. Mepivocaine;

c. Bupivacaine;

d. Levobupacaine;

e. Etidocaine; and

f. Prilocaine;

(3) The following other topical anesthetics:

a. The ketone Dyclonine, for in-office use;

b. The ether Pramoxine;

c. The skin refrigerant ethyl chloride, also known as chloroethane; and

d. Topical lidocaine; and

(4) The methyl group donor betaine;

(s) Anti-psoriatic agents for topical use only:

(1) Dithranol (anthralin);

(2) Calcipotriene;

(3) Fluocinonide; and

(4) Tacrolimus;

(t) Minerals, trace minerals, and their derivatives, such as super saturated potassium iodine (SSKI);

(u) The following miscellaneous agents:

(1) Acamprosate;

(2) Acetazolamide;

(3) Bee venom;

(4) Crofelemer;

(5) Cromolyn sodium;

(6) DMPS;

(7) DMSO;

(8) Ethyl Chloride spray;

(9) Fluro-ethyl spray;

(10) Fluro-methane spray;

(11) Hydrogen peroxide;

(12) Hydrochloric acid;

(13) Methylsulfonylmethane;

(14) Ondansetron;

(15) Oxygen;

(16) Ozone;

(17) Poly-L-lactic acid and derivatives;

(18) Salicylates, propionic acid, and acetic acid derivatives such as:

a. Mesalamine;

b. Topical salicyclic acid preparations;

c. Indomethacin;

d. Ibuprofen;

e. Naproxen;

f. Ketorolac; and

g. Diclofenac; and

(19) Urea;

(v) In-office medical equipment, medical devices, and therapeutic devices such as:

(1) Needles;

(2) Syringes;

(3) IV Tubing;

(4) Filters;

(5) The following barrier contraceptives:

a. Cervical caps; and

b. Diaphragms, excluding intrauterine devices;

(6) Nebulizers, inhalers, spacers, actuators, and mouthpieces for medication delivery;

(7) CPAP machines and medical devices for the treatment and prevention of sleep apnea; and

(8) Auditory devices.

(w) Agents needed to carry out diagnostic tests or physiological function tests such as:

(1) Mannitol;

(2) Methacholine;

(3) Dexamethasone;

(4) Dyes and contrasts such as:

a. Imaging contrasts;

b. Methylene blue; and

c. Triple dye;

(x) Vaccinations, provided they are for use and not prescription, including but not limited to:

(1) BCG;

(2) Cholera;

(3) Diphtheria;

(4) DPT;

(5) Haemophilus b Conjugate;

(6) Hepatitus A Virus;

(7) Hepatitus B;

(8) Influenza Virus;

(9) Japanese Encaphalitis Virus;

(10) Measles Virus;

(11) Mumps virus;

(12) Pertussis;

(13) Plague;

(14) Pneumococcal;

(15) Polio virus – inactivated;

(16) Poliovirus – live oral;

(17) Rabies;

(18) Rubella;

(19) Smallpox;

(20) Tetanus IG;

(21) Tetanus Toxoid;

(22) Typhoid;

(23) Varicella;

(24) Yellow fever; and

(25) Covid-19.

(y) All forms of prescription and non-prescription vitamin preparations and their derivatives, except for Isotretinoin; and

(z) Anti-addictive agents:

(1) Disulfiram;

(2) Naltrexone; and

(3) Naloxone.

Source. #8679, eff 7-11-06; ss by #9656, eff 2-13-10; ss by #12176, eff 5-17-17; ss by #13112, eff 9-24-20

PART Nat 407 NATUROPATHIC ASSISTANTS

Nat 407.01 Naturopathic Assistants.

(a) Doctors of naturopathic medicine licensed under RSA 328-E may employ naturopathic assistants to perform technical and support services.

(b) Naturopathic assistants shall be a licensee or registrant of a licensing board under the health division of the office of professional licensure and certification working under the direct supervision of a naturopathic doctor.

(d) Supervising doctors of naturopathic medicine shall be responsible for any naturopathic assistant under their employment and any service that the assistant provides.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 408 PRESCRIPTION DRUG MONITORING PROGRAM

Nat 408.01 Prescription Drug Monitoring Program Registration.

(a) Naturopathic doctors with a Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) registration shall provide their DEA number, if any, on all initial, renewal, and reciprocity application forms.

(b) Naturopathic doctors who prescribe controlled substances shall register with the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program (PDMP). Licensees who prescribe controlled substances and who fail to register as required by RSA 318-B:33 shall be subject to disciplinary action as outlined in Nat 404.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 409 MEDICATIONS

Nat 409.01 Preparing Drugs and Homeopathic Drugs. Naturopathic doctors engaged in compounding shall comply with the requirements of the United State Pharmacopeia Chapter 797, as required by board of pharmacy rule Ph 404.01. Failure to do so shall result in the board determining whether sanctions are appropriate under Nat 404.05.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 409.02 Controlled Substances. If controlled substances that are on the formulary are on the premises, naturopathic doctors shall follow all requirements set forth in the Controlled Drug Act, RSA 318-B. Failure to do so shall result in the board determining whether sanctions are appropriate under Nat 404.05.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 409.03 Drug-related Complaints. Complaints regarding the preparation, dispensing, or administration of drugs may be made directly to the board or to the board of pharmacy, pursuant to board of pharmacy rule Ph 2200.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 410 JURISPRUDENCE EXAM

Nat 410.01 Jurisprudence Exam Requirement.

(a) The following individuals shall be eligible to take the jurisprudence exam:

(1) Applicants for licensure under RSA 328-E, who shall pass the jurisprudence exam as part of the licensure process prior to an initial license being issued; and

(2) Current licensees, for purposes of obtaining continuing education credits pursuant to Nat 405.03(d).

(b) The pass rate for the exam shall be 75% or greater.

(c) Jurisprudence exams shall be mailed to the applicant or downloaded from the board’s official website by the applicant. Applicants shall complete the exam and return it to the board’s office for grading.

(d) The board’s administrative staff shall grade the exam. If the applicant passes the exam, the initial licensure application and graded exam shall be given to the board to deny or approve.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

CHAPTER Nat 500 ETHICAL STANDARDS

PART Nat 501 OPIOID PRESCRIBING

Nat 501.01 Applicability. This part shall apply to the prescribing of opioids for the treatment of non-cancer and non-terminal pain, and shall not apply to the supervised administration of opioids in a health care setting.

Source. #6380, eff 11-26-96, EXPIRED: 11-26-04

New. #12113, eff 2-22-17

Nat 501.02 Noncompliance with Standards as Unprofessional Conduct. The ethical standards set forth in this part shall bind all licensees, and noncompliance with these standards may result in discipline pursuant to RSA 328-E:14, II. The board shall investigate violations of these standards and impose disciplinary sanctions for such violations by following the disciplinary procedures set forth in Nat 404.

Source. #12113, eff 2-22-17

Nat 501.03 Definitions. Except where the context makes another meaning manifest, the following words have the meanings indicated when used in this chapter:

(a) “Acute pain” means the normal, predicted physiological response to a noxious chemical, thermal, or mechanical stimulus and typically is associated with invasive procedures, trauma, and disease. It can be time-limited, often less than 3 months in duration;

(b) “Administer” means an act whereby a single dose of a drug is instilled into the body of, applied to the body of, or otherwise given to a person for immediate consumption or use;

(c) “Addiction” means a primary, chronic, neurobiologic disease with genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors influencing its development and manifestations. It is characterized by behaviors that include impaired control over drug use, craving, compulsive use, or continued use despite harm. The term does not include physical dependence and tolerance, which are normal physiological consequences of extended opioid therapy for pain;

(d) “Chronic pain” means a state in which non-cancer pain persists beyond the usual course of an acute disease or healing of an injury, or that might or might not be associated with an acute or chronic pathologic process that causes continuous or intermittent pain over months or years. It also includes intermittent episodic pain that might require periodic treatment. For the purposes of these rules, chronic pain does not include pain from cancer or terminal disease;

(e) “Clinical coverage” means specified and prearranged coverage that is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to assist in the management of patients with chronic pain;

(f) “Dose unit” means one pill, one capsule, one patch, or one liquid dose;

(g) “Medication-assisted treatment” means any treatment of opioid addiction that includes a medication, such as methadone, buprenorphine, or naltrexone, that is approved by the FDA for opioid detoxification or maintenance treatment;

(h) “Morphine equivalent dose (MED)” means a conversion of various opioids to a morphine equivalent dose by the use of board-approved conversion tables;

(i) “Prescription” means a verbal, written, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for medications for self-administration by an individual patient;

(j) “Risk assessment” means a process for predicting a patient’s likelihood of misusing or abusing opioids in order to develop and document a level of monitoring for that patient;

(k) “Treatment agreement” means a written agreement that outlines the joint responsibilities of naturopathic doctor and patient; and

(l) “Treatment plan” means a written plan that reflects the particular benefits and risks of opioid use for each individual patient and establishes goals, expectations, methods and time course for treatment.

Source #12113, eff 2-22-17

Nat 501.04 Acute Pain. If opioids are indicated and clinically appropriate for prescription for acute pain, prescribing licensees shall:

(a) Conduct and document a physical examination and history;

(b) Consider the patient’s risk for opioid misuse, abuse, or diversion and prescribe for the lowest effective dose for a limited duration;

(d) Ensure that the patient has been provided information that contains the following:

(1) Risk of side effects, including addiction and overdose resulting in death;

(2) Risks of keeping unused medication;

(3) Options for safely securing and disposing of unused medication; and

(4) Danger in operating motor vehicle or heavy machinery;

(e) Comply with all federal and state controlled substances laws, rules, and regulations;

(f) Complete a board-approved risk assessment tool, such as the evidence based screening tool Screener and Opioid Assessment for Patients with Pain (SOAPP);

(g) Document an appropriate pain treatment plan and consideration of non-pharmacological modalities and non-opioid therapy;

(h) Utilize a written informed consent that explains the following risks associated with opioids:

(1) Addiction;

(2) Overdose and death;

(3) Physical dependence;

(4) Physical side effects;

(5) Hyperalgesia;

(6) Tolerance; and

(7) Crime victimization;

(i) In an emergency department, urgent care setting, or walk-in clinic:

(1) Not prescribe more than the minimum amount of opioids medically necessary to treat the patient’s medical condition. In most cases, an opioid prescription of 3 or fewer days is sufficient, but a licensee shall not prescribe for more than 7 days; and

(2) If prescribing an opioid for acute pain that exceeds a board-approved limit, document the medical condition and appropriate clinical rationale in the patient’s medical record; and

(j) Not be obligated to prescribe opioids for more than 30 days, but if opioids are indicated and appropriate for persistent, unresolved acute pain that extends beyond a period of 30 days, the licensee shall conduct an in-office follow-up with the patient prior to issuing a new opioid prescription.

Source. #12113, eff 2-22-17

Nat 501.05 Chronic Pain. If opioids are indicated and clinically appropriate for prescription for chronic pain, prescribing licensees shall:

(a) Conduct and document a history and physical examination;

(b) Conduct and document a risk assessment, including, but not limited to, the use of an evidence-based screening tool such as the Screener and Opioid Assessment for Patients with Pain (SOAPP);

(d) Prescribe for the lowest effective dose for a limited duration;

(e) Comply with all federal and state controlled substances laws, rules, and regulations;

(f) Utilize a written informed consent that explains the following risks associated with opioids:

(1) Addiction;

(2) Overdose and death;

(3) Physical dependence;

(4) Physical side effects;

(5) Hyperalgesia;

(6) Tolerance; and

(7) Crime victimization;

(g) Create and discuss a treatment plan with the patient. This shall include, but not be limited to the goals of treatment, in terms of pain management, restoration of function, safety, time course for treatment, and consideration of non-pharmacological modalities and non-opioid therapy. Informed consent documents and treatment agreements may be part of one document for the sake of convenience;

(h) Utilize a written treatment agreement that is included in the medical record, and specifies conduct that triggers the discontinuation or tapering of opioids;

(i) The treatment agreement shall also address, at a minimum, the following:

(1) The requirement of safe medication use and storage;

(2) The requirement of obtaining opioids from only one prescriber or practice;

(3) The consent to periodic and random drug testing; and

(4) The prescriber’s responsibility to be available or to have clinical coverage available;

(j) Document the consideration of a consultation with an appropriate specialist in the following circumstances:

(1) When the patient receives a 100 mg morphine equivalent dose daily for longer than 90 days;

(2) When a patient is at high risk for abuse or addiction; or

(3) When a patient has a co-morbid psychiatric disorder;

(k) Reevaluate treatment plans and use of opioids at least twice a year;

(1) Require random and periodic urine drug testing at least annually for all patients using opioids for longer than 90 days. Unanticipated findings shall be addressed in a manner that supports the health of the patient;

(m) Have clinical coverage available for 24 hours per day, 7 days per week, to assist in the management of patients; and

(n) The prescriber may forego the requirements for a written treatment agreement and for periodic drug testing for patients:

(1) Who are residents in a long-term, non-rehabilitative nursing home facility where medications are administered by licensed staff; or

(2) Who are being treated for episodic intermittent pain and receiving no more than 50 dose units of opioids in a 3 month period.

Source. #12113, eff 2-22-17

Nat 501.06 Prescription Drug Monitoring Program.

(a) Prescribers required to register with the program under RSA 318-B:31-40, or their delegate, shall query the prescription drug monitoring program to obtain a history of schedule II-IV controlled substances dispensed to a patient, prior to prescribing an initial schedule II, III, and IV opioids for the management or treatment of this patient’s pain and then periodically and at least twice per year, except when:

(1) Controlled medications are to be administered to patients in a health care setting;

(2) The program is inaccessible or not functioning properly, due to an internal or external electronic issue; or

(3) An emergency department is experiencing a higher than normal patient volume such that querying the program database would materially delay care.

(b) A licensee shall document the exceptions described in (a)(2) and (3)above in the patient’s medical record.

Source. #12113, eff 2-22-17

Nat 501.07 Medication Assisted Treatment. Licensees who prescribe medication assisted treatment shall adhere to the principles outlined in the American Society of Addiction Medicine’s National Practice Guideline For the Use of Medications in the Treatment of Addiction Involving Opioid Use (2015) found at http://www.asam.org/quality-practice/guidelines-and-consensus-documents/npg/complete-guideline as cited in Appendix II.

Source. #12113, eff 2-22-17

CHAPTER Nat 600 SCOPE OF PRACTICE AND CODE OF ETHICS

PART Nat 601 SCOPE OF PRACTICE

Nat 601.01 Definitions.

(a) “Prevention of human health conditions and diseases” means actions directed to preventing illness and promoting health to reduce the need for secondary or tertiary health care. Prevention includes such actions as assessment, application of treatment measures, health teaching, screening, early diagnosis and treatment, and recognition of disability limitations and rehabilitation potential.

(b) “Diagnosis of human health conditions and diseases” means the use of information from sources such as findings from physical examinations, interview of patient or family or both, the medical history of the patient and family and clinical findings as reported by laboratory and medical imaging studies, and diagnosis includes the use of:

(1) Physical or orificial examinations, all medical imaging, and physiological functions tests;

(2) Phlebotomy and laboratory testing, and examinations; and

(3) Non-in vasive diagnostic procedures used by medical practitioners in general practice.

(c) “Treatment of human health conditions and diseases” means the management and care of the patient using education, natural medicines, and therapies, which does not include:

(1) Emergency medical treatment, unless no fee or other consideration is charged, received, expected, or contemplated, pursuant to RSA 328-E:5, I(g);

(2) Prescribing, dispensing, or administering any legend or controlled substance as defined in RSA 318 or RSA 318-B except the prescribing, dispensing, or administering legend or controlled substances approved for use in the naturopathic formulary pursuant to RSA 328-E:16; or

(3) The use of surgical or invasive procedures.

(d) “Surgical procedure” means a procedure in which skin or mucus membrane and connective tissue are incised or excised. This includes operations, biopsies, deep cryotherapy, and organ transplantation.

(e) “Non-surgical procedure” means a procedure that does not include the use of parenteral or non-parenteral therapeutic devices to administer natural medicine as provided for in Nat 406, or the use of therapeutic devices including but not limited to, otoscopes and ophthalmoscopes.

(f) “Parenteral therapies” means the use of therapeutic devices to access and administer natural medicines according to Nat 406 in routes other than oral such as topical, intravenous, intramuscular, intra-articular, intradermal, or subcutaneous.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 601.02 Duty of Licensees Regarding Scope of Practice. Each licensee shall practice only within the scope of their training, expertise, and capability.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 601.03 Therapeutic Devices.

(a) Naturopathic doctors may use therapeutic devices that are parenteral or non-parenteral to administer natural medicines listed in Nat 406 in accordance with manufacturer instructions.

(b) Therapeutic devices shall not be used by a naturopathic doctor for the following:

(1) To perform surgery or surgical operations;

(2) To perform general or spinal anesthesia, epidurals, or any other intrathecal procedures;

(3) To perform intra-arterial or intracardiac procedures;

(4) For parenteral or non-parenteral administration of formulary medicines using methods inconsistent with completed education;

(5) To perform acupuncture unless a specialty certificate in naturopathic acupuncture is obtained; and

(6) For use during childbirth unless a specialty certificate in naturopathic childbirth is obtained.

(1) Patient, name, and date;

(2) Type of carrier solution and amount, if applicable;

(3) Type and amount of each medication added to the carrier solution, if applicable;

(4) Rate of infusion, if applicable;

(5) Route of administration, such as whether the treatment was topical, intravenous, intramuscular, intra-articular, or subcutaneous; and

(6) Type and gauge of access device used, such as a needle, catheter, butterfly, or central venous access device.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

PART Nat 602 ETHICAL STANDARDS FOR NATUROPATHS

Nat 602.01 Ethical Standards for Naturopaths. The ethical standards for naturopaths shall be the APTA Code of Ethics for the American Association of Naturopathic Physicians’ (AANP) Code of Ethics, approved as a full code of ethics August 2012 and as referenced in Appendix II.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

CHAPTER Nat 700 FORMULARY COUNCIL

PART Nat 701 FORMULARY COUNCIL PROCEDURES

Nat 701.01 Definitions.

(a) “Substantially identical molecular structure of synthetically produced substances” means a substance with a related or fundamental aspect to a naturally occurring substance in plants, animals or humans in terms of mechanism of action or pharmacology.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

Nat 701.02 Formulary Council

(a) The council on doctors of naturopathic medicine formulary (“council”) shall be responsible for reviewing the formulary at least twice per year.

(b) Meetings shall be held at the office of professional licensure and certification. The board’s administrative staff shall be responsible for coordinating meetings of the council, preparing documents for the council, and keeping minutes of council meetings.

(d) The council shall review requests for medicines and drugs to be added to the formulary in order to determine whether they are appropriate for the naturopathic profession.

(e) When determined to be appropriate to the scope of practice of doctors of naturopathic medicine, the council on doctors of naturopathic medicine formulary may consider synthetically-produced substances and their salts having an identical or substantially identical molecular structure to a plant or animal substance as found in nature to be plant or animal substances.

(f) Any person requesting additions to the formulary shall complete and submit a “New Medication Formulary Request Form” to the council, which includes the following:

(1) Applicant’s name and mailing address;

(2) Date;

(3) Naturopathic license number, if applicable;

(4) Whether the request is to add a drug to the formulary or remove a drug from the formulary;

(5) Drug name;

(6) Drug class;

(7) Whether the drug is a prescription, non-prescription, or a scheduled drug;

(8) Route of administration;

(9) Mechanism of administration;

(10) Explanation of how the drug complies with scope of practice of naturopathic doctors;

(11) Explanation of the identical or functional similarity of the drug to a naturally occurring substance; and

(12) Explanation of how the drug functions similar to a naturally occurring substance.

(g) The council shall be responsible for reviewing requests for removal of a drug from the formulary. The council shall remove a drug upon majority vote.

Source. #13140, eff 11-26-20

Appendix I – Statutes Implemented

Rule	Specific State Statute the Rule Implements
Nat 101	RSA 328-E:1
Nat 101.01	RSA 541-A:16, I(a)
Nat 102.01(a)	RSA 328-E:2, I
Nat 102.01(b)	RSA 328-E:2, III
Nat 102.01(c)	RSA 328-E:16
Nat 102.01(d), (i), (k), (n)	RSA 541-A:16, I(a)
Nat 102.01(e)	RSA 328-E:2, IV
Nat 102.01(f)	RSA 328-E:2, V
Nat 102.01(g)	RSA 328-E:2, VI
Nat 102.01(h)	RSA 328-E:2, VII
Nat 102.01(j)	RSA 328-E:2, VIII
Nat 102.01(l)	RSA 328-E:2, IX
Nat 102.01(m)	RSA 328-E:2, X
Nat 102.01(o)	RSA 328-E:2, XI
Nat 103.01	RSA 328-E:7, I
Nat 103.02(a) and (b)	RSA 328-E:8, I
Nat 103.02(c)	RSA 328-E:10, I(d)
Nat 103.03	RSA 328-E:16
Nat 103.04	RSA 328-E:15
Nat 103.05	RSA 328-E:7, IV
Nat 103.06	RSA 328-E:7, V
Nat 103.07	RSA 91-A:2, II
Nat 103.09	RSA 328-E:7, V
Nat 104.01	RSA 541-A:16, I(a)
Nat 104.02(a)	RSA 91-A:4, IV
Nat 104.02(b)	RSA 310:4, II(e)
Nat 104.02(c)	RSA 91-A:2, II
Nat 104.02(d)	RSA 91-A:3, III
Nat 104.02(e)	RSA 91-A:4, IV
Nat 104.02(f)	RSA 541-A:16, I(a)

Nat 201	RSA 541-A:16, I(b)-(d); RSA 310:6, II

Nat 301	RSA 541-A:7
Nat 302	RSA 541-A:16, I(b)(1); RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 303.01 – Nat 303.02	RSA 328-E:9, I
Nat 303.03 – Nat 303.05	RSA 328-E:9, I(b)
Nat 304	RSA 328-E:9, II
Nat 305	RSA 328-E:12, I and III
Nat 306.01	RSA 541-A:7
Nat 306.02 – Nat 306.06	RSA 328-E:12, I and II
Nat 307.01	RSA 328-E:8, I(a)

Nat 401	RSA 541-A:7
Nat 401.01	RSA 541-A:7; RSA 328-E:8, I(b)
Nat 402.01	RSA 328-E:10, I(e); RSA 328-E:13, I
Nat 402.02, Nat 402.04 – Nat 402.06	RSA 328-E:13, I; RSA 328-E:8, I(b); RSA 328-:10, I(e)
Nat 402.03	RSA 328-E:13, I; RSA 328-E:8, I(b)
Nat 402.07	RSA 328-E:13, I
Nat 402.08	RSA 328-E:13, II
Nat 402.09	RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 403.01 and Nat 403.02	RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 403.03	RSA 328-E:8, I(b) and (c); RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 403.04	RSA 328-E:8, I(b) and (c); RSA 328-E:10, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 404.01(a)	RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:4
Nat 404.01(b)	RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:16, III
Nat 404.01(c)	RSA 328-E:14, I
Nat 404.01(d)-(t)	RSA 328-E:1, II(a);RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 404.02(a)	RSA 328-E:14, II
Nat 404.02(b)-(d)	RSA 328-E:1, II(a); RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 404.03	RSA 328-E:1, II(a); RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 404.04(a)	RSA 328-E:14, I
Nat 404.04(b)	RSA 328-E:1, II(a); RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 404.05	RSA 328-E:1, II(a); RSA 328-E:14, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(e)
Nat 405	RSA 328-E:13, II; RSA 328-E:10, II
Nat 406	RSA 328-E:16, III
Nat 407.01	RSA 328-E:10, I(b)
Nat 408.01	RSA 318-B:33
Nat 409.01	RSA 318:42, II; RSA 318:14-a
Nat 409.02	RSA 328-E:14, II
Nat 409.03	RSA 318:9-a; RSA 318:30; RSA 318:14-a
Nat 410.01	RSA 328-E:9, I(f); RSA 328-E:10, II; RSA 328-E:10, I(f)

Nat 501	RSA 318-E:10, I(e); RSA 318-B:41, I(a)(6), II

Nat 601.01	RSA 328-E:4; RSA 328-E:10, I(f)
Nat 601.02	RSA 328-E:4; RSA 328-E:10, I(f)
Nat 601.03	RSA 328-E:4; RSA 328-E:10, I(f)
Nat 602.01	RSA 328-E:10, I(f)

Nat 701	RSA 328-E:10, I(d); RSA 328-E:16

Appendix II – Incorporation by Reference Information

Rule	Reference	Obtain at:
Nat 501.07	The American Society of Addiction Medicine’s “National Practice Guideline For the Use of Medications in the Treatment of Addiction Involving Opioid Use,” adopted on June 1, 2015.	No cost to download from: http://www.asam.org/quality-practice/guidelines-and-consensus-documents/npg/complete-guideline

Nat 602.01	APTA Code of Ethics for the American Association of Naturopathic Physicians’ (AANP) Code of Ethics, approved as a full code of ethics August 2012	https://cdn.ymaws.com/naturopathic.org/resource/resmgr/documents/governance_docs/aanp_code_of_ethics_updated_.pdf