CHAPTER
Den 100 ORGANIZATIONAL RULES
Statutory
Authority: RSA 317-A:12
PART
Den 101 DEFINITIONS
Den 101.01 “Active license” means a
Source.
#287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98
Den 101.02 “Addiction” means a primary, chronic, neurobiologic disease with genetic, psychosocial, and
environmental factors influencing its development and manifestations. It is characterized by behaviors that include
impaired control over drug use, craving, compulsive use, or continued use
despite harm. The term does not include
physical dependence and tolerance, which are normal physiological consequences
of extended opioid therapy for pain.
Source.
#14140, eff 1-31-25
Den 101.03
“Administer” means an act whereby a single dose of a drug is instilled
into the body of, applied to the body of, or otherwise given to a person for
immediate consumption or use.
Source.
#14140, eff 1-31-25
Den 101.04 “Base” means a replacement material for lost
dentin tooth structure. https://gencourt.state.nh.us/rules/filing_history/sourceden.html
Source.
#2981, eff 2-28-85; renumbered by #14140
(formerly Den 101.02)
Den 101.05 “Board” means the New Hampshire board of
dental examiners established pursuant to RSA 317-A:2.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.03)
Den 101.06 “Certification” means the
process attesting that an individual has met certain predetermined standards
specified by the certifying body.
Source. #7969,
eff 10-10-03; renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.04)
Den 101.07 “Certified dental assistant” means a dental
assistant who holds current certified dental assistant certification from the
Dental Assisting National Board (DANB).
Source. #12427,
eff 12-6-17; renumbered by #14140
(formerly Den 101.05)
Den 101.08 “Clinical” means having to
do with the direct observation and treatment of patients.
Source. #8224,
eff 12-8-04; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.05); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.06)
Den 101.09 “Dental assistant” means any person who
assists the dentist in carrying out the clinical duties of a dental office.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #9777-A, eff 9-3-10; ss by #9956, eff 7-16-11; renumbered by
#12427 (formerly Den 101.06); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.07)
Den 101.10 “Dental hygienist” means a
person holding a current license issued by the board under RSA 317-A:21.
Source. #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91,
EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.07); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.08)
Den 101.11 “Dentist” means a person holding a current
license issued by the board under RSA 317-A:7 and RSA 317-A:20.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.08); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.09)
Den 101.12 “Diagnosis” means the identification of a
disease from its signs and symptoms.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #7556, eff 9-20-01; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den
101.09); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.10)
Den 101.13 “Direct supervision” means a dentist with an
active license is in the dental office, authorizes the procedure and remains in
the dental office while the procedures are being performed and evaluates the
performance of the dental hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the
patient.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #10990, eff 12-9-15; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den
101.10); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.11)
Den 101.14 “Dose
unit” means one pill, one capsule, one patch, or one liquid dose.
Source. #14140, eff 1-31-25
Den 101.15 “General supervision” means a dentist with an
active license has authorized the procedures, and the procedures are being
carried out in accordance with their diagnosis and treatment plan, and the
procedures will be personally evaluated and reviewed by the dentist with the patient
at least once in a 12 month period.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908, eff
12-9-98; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den
101.11); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.12)
Den 101.16 “Graduate dental assistant”
means a dental assistant who has graduated from a Commission on Dental
Accreditation (CODA) accredited school of dental assisting.
Source. #12427,
eff 12-6-17; renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.13)
Den 101.17 “Indirect supervision” means a dentist with
an active license is in the dental office, authorizes the procedures, and
remains in the dental office while the procedures are being performed by the
dental hygienist or dental assistant and evaluates the performance of the
dental hygienist or dental assistant at a subsequent appointment.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.12); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.14)
Den 101.18 “Letter of concern” means a written letter
from the board drawing the licensee’s attention to specific acts or omissions
that could place the licensee at risk of future disciplinary action. A letter
of concern is non-disciplinary and is sent to the licensee following a
communication of alleged misconduct, complaint, or investigation.
Source. #12427,
eff 12-6-17; renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.15)
Den 101.19 “Licensure” means the process by which the
board, to protect the public, grants written permission to persons meeting
qualifications set forth in these rules to engage in the practice of dentistry
or dental hygiene.
Source. #7969,
eff 10-10-03; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.13); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.16)
Den 101.20 “Licensure by endorsement certification”
means granting a license to practice dentistry or to provide dental hygiene
services in New Hampshire based upon compliance with the applicable
requirements of Den 300, and holding a current, unsuspended, unrestricted
license to practice in another state.
Source. #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91,
EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #12427 (from Den 101.14); renumbered by #14140 (formerly
Den 101.17)
Den 101.21 “Licensure by examination” means granting a
license to practice dentistry or to provide dental hygiene services in New
Hampshire based upon compliance with the applicable requirements of Den 300,
and passage of the American Board of Dental Examiners (ADEX) or any similar national or regional
testing agency.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #10688, eff
10-7-14; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.15); renumbered by #14140
(formerly Den 101.18)
Den 101.22 “Liner” means a material placed in a tooth
for reasons other than to replace tooth structure.
Source. #8099,
eff 6-11-04; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.16); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.19)
Den 101.23 “Monitor” means to observe for a special
purpose.
Source. #8099,
eff 6-11-04; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.17); renumbered by #14140 (formerly den 101.20)
Den 101.24 “Moral turpitude” means baseness, vileness,
or dishonesty to a high degree.
Source. #8962,
eff 8-16-07; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.18); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly 101.21)
Den 101.25
“Personally evaluated” means that a dentist with an active license performs an
oral exam on the patient once in a 12 month period.
Source. #12427,
eff 12-6-17; renumbered by #14140
(formerly Den 101.22)
Den 101.26 “Prescription” means a verbal, written,
facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for medications for
self-administration by an individual patient.
Source. #14140,
eff 1-31-25
Den 101.27 “President” means president of the board
chosen pursuant to RSA 317-A:4.
Source. #287.2 eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #4262-a, eff 5-19-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; amd
by #5722, eff 10-15-93; ss by #6908, eff
12-9-98; renumbered by #12427 (formerly 101.19); renumbered by #14140
(formerly Den 101.23)
Den 101.28 “Public health supervision” means a dentist
with an active license authorizes procedures which are to be carried out by a
dental hygienist with an active license practicing in a school, hospital or
other institution, or for a homebound person without the dentist having to be
present provided the dentist reviews the records once in a 12
month period.
Source. #6097, eff 9-29-95; ss by #6908, eff 12-9-98; ss by #10328-A, eff
5-7-13; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.20); renumbered by #14140
(formerly Den 101.24)
Den 101.29 "Qualified" means meeting the
requirements of Den 302.05.
Source. #6097, eff 9-29-95; ss by #6908, eff 12-9-98; renumbered by #12427
(formerly Den 101.21); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.25)
Den 101.30 “Registration” means to secure official entry
on the roster of persons having a dental or dental hygiene license in New
Hampshire.
Source. #7671, eff 4-4-02; ss and moved by #8224, eff 12-8-04 (formerly Den 101.19);
renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.22); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den
101.26)
Den 101.31 “Supervision” means oversight by a dentist of
the performance of duties authorized by the board to dental hygienists and
dental assistants.
Source.
#6908, eff 12-9-98; renumbered by #12427
(formerly Den 101.23); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.27)
Den 101.32 “Temporary dental restoration” means a
substance placed as an interim restoration to sedate or seal a tooth.
Source. #8099,
eff 6-11-04; renumbered by #12427 (formerly Den 101.24); renumbered by
#14140 (formerly Den 101.28)
Den 101.33 “Traditional dental assistant” means a dental
assistant who is neither a certified dental assistant nor a graduate dental
assistant.
Source. #12427,
eff 12-6-17; renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.29)
Den 101.34 “Treatment
plan” means a written plan that reflects the particular
benefits and risks of opioid use for each individual patient and
establishes goals, expectations, methods, and time course for treatment.
Source. #14140,
eff 1-31-25
Den 101.35 “Vice president” means the vice president of
the board chosen pursuant to RSA 317-A:4.
Source.
#8224, eff 12-8-04; renumbered by
#12427 (formerly Den 101.25); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.30)
Den 101.36 “Volunteer” means an individual who provides
dental care without pay or compensation for work or service performed.
Source.
#8224, eff 12-8-04; renumbered by
#12427 (formerly Den 101.26); renumbered by #14140 (formerly Den 101.31)
PART
Den 102 DESCRIPTION OF BOARD
Den 102.01 Organization of Board.
(a)
The board of dental examiners consists of 9 members, including 6
dentists, 2 hygienists, and one public member.
One of these shall serve as president and one as vice-president. It is the duty of the board to examine,
register, and license applicants whom they find to be qualified to practice
dentistry or dental hygiene in this state.
All board members are required by RSA 317-A:3 to be residents of the
state. The 6 dentist
members shall be licensed to practice dentistry in this state
one of which shall hold a current permit to administer general anesthesia and
deep sedation. The 2 dental hygienist
members shall be licensed to practice dental hygiene in this state. The board shall also be responsible for the
administration of the practice of dental auxiliaries assisting licensed
dentists practicing in the state.
(b)
Members of the board are appointed as their terms expire by the
governor, with the advice and consent of the council, for a period of 5 years
and a limit of 2 consecutive terms, or until their successors are appointed and
qualified. Members of the board shall
receive a per diem allowance for meetings and hearings. Members shall be
reimbursed for expenses of travel.
(c)
The board meets annually and at such times as its business
requires. A president shall be chosen at
the annual meeting from the membership of the board. A true record of all their official acts
shall be preserved by the office of professional licensure and certification
(OPLC). The public records shall be open
to inspection on the board's website once approved by the board and during
office hours at the OPLC, 7 Eagle Square, Concord New Hampshire. Notice of
board meetings shall be posted in accordance with RSA 91-A.
(d)
The board rules govern the conduct and qualifications of dentists,
dental hygienists, and dental assistants and establish requirements for
continuing education as a prerequisite for renewal of licenses of dentists and
dental hygienists. The board shall be a
member of the Northeast Regional Board of Dental Examiners (NERB), doing
business as the Commission on Dental Competency Assessments (CDCA), the
American Board of Dental Examiners (ADEX), and the American
Association of Dental Boards (AADB).
(e)
The board shall establish standing committees and ad hoc committees to
facilitate meeting the requirements of RSA 317-A.
(f)
Standing committees shall include:
(1) A malpractice committee which reviews
insurance claims and legal judgments for medical injury and refers them to the
full board pursuant to RSA 317-A:17, V; and
(2) An anesthesia and sedation committee to
develop and propose administrative rules regarding the practice, discipline,
education, examination, and permitting of dentists and facilities authorized to
administer anesthesia in a dental practice.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6908,
eff 12-9-98; amd by #7671, eff 4-4-02; ss by 9408-A,
eff 3-10-09; amd by #9777-A, eff 9-3-10; ss by #10688,
eff 10-7-14; ss by #10990, eff 12-9-15; ss by #14140, eff 1-31-25
PART
Den 103 ACCESS TO PUBLIC INFORMATION
Den 103.01 Record of Official Actions. Minutes shall be kept of all board meetings
and all official actions taken by the board.
These minutes shall record those members who participate in each vote
and shall separately record the position of any members who choose to dissent,
abstain, or concur. Board minutes shall
be public records and shall be available for inspection during the OPLC’s
ordinary office hours within 5 business days of the date of the meeting or the
vote in question.
Source.
#6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #14140, eff 1-31-25
Den 103.02 Custodian of Records. The OPLC shall be the custodian of the
board’s records.
Source.
#6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #14140, eff 1-31-25
Den 103.03 Copies of Records. Persons desiring
copies of board records shall request those records in accordance with Plc 103.
Source.
#6908,
eff 12-9-98; ss by #14140, eff 1-31-25
CHAPTER
Den 200 RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE
REVISION
NOTE #1:
Document
#8884-A & #8884-B, effective 5-17-07, made
extensive changes to the wording, format, structure, and numbering of rules in
Chapter Den 200. Document
#8884-A and #8884-B supersede all prior filings for the sections in this
chapter. The prior filings for former
Chapter Den 200 include the following documents:
#287.2,
eff 1-17-74
#2981,
eff 2-28-85
#4509,
10-25-88
#5110,
eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
#6541,
eff 7-18-97
#6909,
eff 12-9-98 , EXPIRED: 12-9-06
#7270,
eff 5-12-00
#7660,
eff 3-13-02
#7777,
eff 10-10-02
#8513,
eff 12-13-05
REVISION
NOTE #2:
Document #13919, effective 5-31-24,
repealed Part Den 201 through Part Den 216 in Chapter Den 200, titled “Practice
and Procedure”, and renamed the chapter as “Rules of Practice and
Procedure”. Document #13919 also adopted
a new Part Den 201 titled “Applicability and Waiver of Substantive Rules”,
containing Den 201.01 titled “Rules of Practice and Procedure” and Den 201.02
titled “Waiver of Administrative Rules.”
Document
#13919 replaces all prior filings affecting the rules in the former Chapter Den
200. The prior filings beginning with
Document #8884-A and Document #884-B included the following documents. Italics indicate
the rules were subject to expiration only pursuant to RSA 541-A:17, II:
#8884-A, eff 5-17-07 (See Revision Note
at chapter heading for Den 200)
#8884-B, eff
5-17-07
#9408-A, eff 3-10-09
#9777-B, eff
9-3-10
#10793-A, eff 3-7-15
#10793-B, eff
3-7-15
#10990, eff 12-9-15
As practice and
procedure rules, the rules in Document #13919 will not expire except pursuant
to RSA 541-A:17, II.
PART Den 201
APPLICABILITY AND WAIVER OF SUBSTANTIVE RULES
Den
201.01 Rules of Practice and
Procedure. The Plc 200 rules shall govern with regards to all procedures for:
(a) Adjudicatory proceedings;
(b) Rulemaking submissions, considerations, and
dispositions of rulemaking;
(c) Public comment hearings;
(d) Declaratory rulings;
(e) All statements of policy and interpretation;
(f) Explanation of adopted rules; and
(g) Voluntary surrender of licenses.
Source. (See Revision Note #1 and Revision Note #2 at
chapter heading for Den 200) #13919, eff
5-31-24
Den 201.02 Waiver of Administrative Rules.
(a)
The board shall initiate a waiver of a substantive rule upon its own
motion by providing affected parties with notice and opportunity to be heard, and issuing an order which finds that waiver would be
necessary to advance the purpose of the rules of the board.
(b)
Individuals who wish to request a waiver of a rule shall submit a
written request to the board, which includes:
(1) The rule for which a waiver is requested;
(2) The anticipated length of time the requested
waiver will be needed;
(3) The reason for requesting the waiver;
(4) Evidence of how the waiver will provide for
the health and safety of the consumer or licensee;
(5) A time-limited written compliance plan which
sets forth plans to achieve compliance including an estimated date of
compliance; and
(6) The signature of the applicant.
(c)
The board shall consider the following when determining whether to
approve or deny a waiver:
(1) If adherence to the rule would cause the
petitioner unnecessary or undue hardship;
(2) If the requested waiver is necessary because
of any neglect or misfeasance on the part of the practitioner;
(3) If enforcement of the rule would injure a
third person(s); and
(4) If waiver of the rule would injure a third
person(s).
(d)
The board shall approve a waiver of an administrative rule request only
if:
(1) Granting a waiver does not have the effect of
waiving or modifying a provision of RSA 317-A;
(2) The petitioner shows or has shown good cause
exists to waive the rule; and
(3) The board determines that the individual’s
plans for compliance with the rule includes an
estimated date of compliance and eventual compliance.
(e)
If the board, after receiving and reviewing a request for a waiver,
requires further information or documentation to grant or deny the waiver, the
board shall:
(1) Notify the applicant in writing within 30
days; and
(2) Specify the information or documentation the
board requires.
(f)
The board shall issue a written approval or denial of the waiver within
60 days of the date the request is received, unless additional information or
documentation is required. If additional
information and documentation is required, then the board shall issue a written
approval or denial within 60 days of receiving the requested information or
documentation.
Source. (See Revision Note #1 and Revision Note #2 at
chapter heading for Den 200) #13919, eff
5-31-24
CHAPTER
Den 300 LICENSING REQUIREMENTS
REVISION
NOTE:
The Governor declared a State of
Emergency in Executive Order 2020-04, which was effective 3-13-20. The declaration and subsequent Emergency
Orders issued pursuant to Executive Order 2020-04 affected various rules and
statutes governing licensing under Chapter Den 300, such as Exhibit N to
Emergency Order #29, effective 7-29-20, which amended Den 101.06 defining
“clinical”, Den 301.01(a)(8)b. in Den 301.01 titled
“Application for Dental Hygienist Licensure”, and Den 301.02(a)(8)b. in Den
301.02 titled “Application for Dental Licensure.” These amendments remained in effect until
December 31, 2020. Exhibit Z of
Emergency Order #29, effective April 14, 2021, subsequently amended these rules
again. The State of Emergency terminated
at midnight on 6-11-21, and rules or statutes amended during the State of
Emergency were restored. To determine
what rules in Den 300 were applicable during the State of Emergency, the user
should check not only the source notes of the rules but also the Emergency
Orders in effect at the time in question.
Document #13232, effective 7-15-21,
amended Den 301.01(a)(8)b. in Den 301.01 titled “Application for Dental
Hygienist Licensure” as an emergency rule.
Pursuant to RSA 541-A:18, V, the emergency rule expired 1-11-22, and Den
303.01(a)(8)b. was effective again in its original form in Document #12428,
effective 12-6-17.
Document #13233, effective 7-15-21,
amended Den 301.02(a)(8)b. in Den 301.02 titled “Application for Dental
Licensure” as an emergency rule.
Pursuant to RSA 541-A:18, V, the emergency rule expired 1-11-22, and Den
301.02 was effective again in its original form in Document #12428, effective
12-6-17.
Document #13251, effective 8-11-21,
amended Den 304.05(f) in Den 304.05 titled “General Anesthesia, Deep Sedation and
Moderate Sedation, and Moderate Sedation Only Permit Application Procedures and
Evaluations” as an emergency rule. Pursuant to RSA 541-A:18, V, the emergency
rule expired 2-7-22, and Den 304.05 was effective again in its original form in
Document #12428, eff 12-6-17.
Document
#13367, effective 4-19-22, readopted with amendment Den 301.01, Den 301.02, Den
301.06 titled “License Activation”, Den 301.08 titled “Board Fees”, and Den
301.12 titled “Reinstatement of Lapsed Licenses” as regular rules.
Den 301.01 Application for Dental Hygienist Licensure.
(a)
Each applicant for a license to practice dental hygiene in the state of
New Hampshire shall complete and submit the “Universal Application for Initial
Licensure” as required by Plc 304.01(a)(1).
(b)
In addition to the information required by (a) above the applicant for
licensure shall provide and submit the following information on the “Dental Hygienist Addendum to the Universal Application for
Initial Licensure”:
(1) Any other names by
which the applicant has ever been known; and
(2)
Whether the applicant has taken and passed the following examinations of
the:
a.
Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations; and
b. American Board of Dental Examiners
(ADEX) dental hygiene examination or other equivalent U.S. regional or state
board which includes clinical procedure components or manikin examination.
(c)
The applicant for licensure as a dental hygienist shall provide the
following with the application for licensure:
(1) One of the following:
a. An original or certified copy of the
applicant's birth certificate written in English or translated to English;
b. A certified copy of the applicant’s valid
passport written in English or translated to English; or
c. A driver’s license or other state issued
identification;
(2) At least 3 “Statement of Professional
Character” forms completed by at least one licensed dentist in good standing
and at least one licensed dental hygienist in good standing if the applicant
has previous dental employment. The
dentist or dental hygienist shall sign and complete the “Statement of
Professional Character” form within 4 months of the date of submission of the
initial application which shall include:
a. Placing that applicant’s name within the
following statement:
“I am
personally acquainted with ________________________________ and attest that to
the best of my knowledge they are of good professional character and recommend
them for licensure in the State of New Hampshire.”
b. Signature of the individual attesting to the
statement in a. above;
c. Address of the individual attesting to the
statement in a. above;
d. Printed name of the individual attesting to
the statement in a. above;
e. Occupation, license number, state of
licensure, and the length of time the individual attesting to the statement in
a. above has known the applicant; and
f. The applicant’s name and complete address in
the “Return this completed form to:” section;
(3) Signed certification of graduation or, if not
more than 3 months prior to the date the degree will be conferred, a
certification of completion by the dean or registrar of the school of dental
hygiene granting the applicant a degree;
(4) Proof of current basic life support for
healthcare providers (BLS-HCP), if applicable;
(5) A criminal offender record check provided in
accordance with Plc 304.01(b);
(6) An official copy of the applicant's school of
dental hygiene transcript bearing the registrar's original signature and the
school's seal;
(7) The applicant's original grade card denoting
successful completion of the examination of the Joint Commission on National
Dental Examinations and the American Board
of Dental Examiners (ADEX) or other equivalent examination described in
(b)(2)b., above;
(8) A certified statement from the dental
examining board of each state in which the applicant has been licensed as to
whether the applicant's license to practice in that state, based on the records
of the board;
a. Has been subject to
disciplinary action;
b. Has disciplinary action pending;
c. Has been under stayed probation; or
d. Is under
investigation; and
(9) The fee required pursuant to Plc 1002.11.
(d) Applicants shall have successfully passed
their regional boards and provide verification directly to OPLC from the CDCA
or equivalent regional or state board showing that they have taken and passed
the examination, including a clinical procedure component, within the 3 years
immediately prior to submitting the application.
(e)
Applicants for endorsement certification shall have taken and passed the
ADEX dental hygiene examination, or other similar U.S. regional or state board
for dental hygienists examination, including a
clinical procedure component or manikin examination, with a passing score on
each part of the examination and have documentation of successful completion
sent directly to OPLC’s office.
(f)
An applicant shall be a graduate of a dental hygiene program which:
(1) Is of at least 2 academic years in duration;
(2) Is accredited by a national accrediting
agency recognized by the United States Department of Education and the CODA;
and
(3) Awards the minimum degree of Associates in Science with a major in dental hygiene.
(g)
When the required materials have been approved by the OPLC, the
applicant shall take a jurisprudence exam on the contents of RSA 317-A Dental
Practice Act, administrative rules Den 100 through Den 500, the American Dental
Association’s Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct, and the
American Dental Hygienists’ Association Code of Ethics for Dental Hygienists.
(h)
The passing score on the jurisprudence exam shall be 75% or higher.
(i) After passage of the
jurisprudence exam in (g) above, an active New Hampshire dental hygiene license
shall be issued.
Source. Editorial Addition; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; ss by #5755, eff 12-14-93; amd
by #6186, eff 2-17-96; ss by #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd
by #7557, eff 9-20-01; amd by #7661, eff 3-13-02; amd by #7778, eff 10-10-02; amd
by #7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #7970, eff 10-10-03; amd by #8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by
#8584, eff 3-16-06; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by
#8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #8963, eff 8-16-07; amd by #9256, eff 9-10-08; amd by
#9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd by #10068, eff 1-10-12; amd by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss
by #10824, eff 5-6-15; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff
12-6-17; amd by #13232,
EMERGENCY RULE, eff 7-15-21, EXPIRED:
1-11-22; ss by #13367, eff 4-19-22 (see Revision Note at chapter heading
for Den 300); ss by #14187, eff 4-4-25
Den 301.02 Application
for Dental License.
(a) Each applicant for a license to practice
dentistry in the state of New Hampshire shall complete and submit the
“Universal Application for Initial Licensure” required by Plc 304.01(a)(1).
(b) In addition to the information required by
(a) above the applicant for dental license shall provide and submit the
following information on the “Dentist Addendum to the Universal Application for
Initial Licensure”:
(1) Any other names by which the applicant has
been known;
(2) Whether the applicant has taken and passed
the examinations of the:
a. Joint Commission on National Dental
Examinations; and
b. ADEX
examination, or other equivalent U.S. regional or state board clinical
examination for dentists, including a clinical periodontal scaling component or
the manikin examination; and
(3) Has ever had a Drug Enforcement
Administration (DEA) license revoked, suspended, denied, placed on probation,
restricted, or otherwise sanctioned by a state or federal licensing regulatory
board or agency, or which is currently involved in an investigation or
disciplinary process.
(c) The following shall be submitted with the
application for initial licensure:
(1)
At least 3 “Statement of Professional Character” forms, as described in
Den 301.01(c)(2), completed by at least 2 licensed dentists in good standing if
the applicant has previous dental employment.
The dentist shall sign and complete the “Statement of Professional
Character” form within 4 months of the date of submission of the application;
(2)
Signed certification of graduation or, if not more than 3 months prior
to the date the degree will be conferred, a certification of completion by the
dean or registrar of the dental college granting the applicant a degree;
(3)
One of the following:
a.
An original or certified copy of the applicant's birth certificate
written in English or translated to English;
b.
A certified copy of the applicant’s valid passport written in English or
translated to English; or
c. A driver’s license or other state
issued identification;
(4)
Proof of current basic life support for healthcare providers (BLS-HCP),
if applicable;
(5)
A criminal offender record check provided in accordance with Plc
304.01(b);
(6)
An official copy of the applicant's dental school transcript and, if
applicable, a copy of a specialty training certificate bearing the registrar's
original signature and the school's seal or a letter on school letterhead sent
directly to OPLC. An unofficial
transcript and a diploma stamped with the dental school seal may be provided
until the official transcript is ready;
(7)
The applicant's original grade card denoting successful completion of
the examination of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations and the
American Board of Dental Examiners (ADEX) or
other equivalent examination described in (b)(2)b., above;
(8)
A certified statement from the dental examining board of each state in
which the applicant has been licensed as to whether the applicant's license to
practice in that state based on the records of the
board, as follows:
a. Has been subject to disciplinary action;
b.
Has disciplinary action pending;
c.
Has been under stayed probation; or
d. Is under investigation; and
(9)
The fee required pursuant to Plc 1002.11.
(d) Applicants shall have successfully passed
their regional boards and provide verification directly to OPLC from the CDCA
or other equivalent U.S. regional or state board that the applicant has taken
and passed the board clinical examination or manikin examination for dentists,
including a clinical periodontal scaling component, within the 3 years
immediately prior to submitting the application.
(e)
Endorsement certification shall be considered for each applicant in accordance with Plc 313.22.
(f) The education requirements specified in RSA
317-A:8 shall apply to all applicants for licensure under this section.
(g) An applicant shall be a graduate of a dental
school general dentistry program which:
(1)
Is of at least 2 academic years in duration;
(2)
Is accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA); and
(3)
Awards the degree of Doctor of Dental Medicine (DMD) or Doctor of Dental
Surgery (DDS).
(h) When the required materials have been
approved by the OPLC, the applicant shall take a jurisprudence exam on the
contents of RSA 317-A Dental Practice Act, administrative rules Den 100 through
Den 500, the American Dental Association’s Principles of Ethics and Code of
Professional Conduct, and the American Dental Hygienists’ Association Code of
Ethics for Dental Hygienists.
(i) The passing score
on the jurisprudence exam shall be 75% or higher.
(j) After passage of the jurisprudence exam in (h) above, the OPLC
shall issue an active New Hampshire dental license.
(k) When an applicant possesses a DEA number to
prescribe schedules II-IV controlled substances pursuant to RSA 318-B:41, I(a),
the applicant for licensure shall register with the New Hampshire Controlled
Drug Prescription Health and Safety Program (PDMP), pursuant to RSA 126-A:91.
If the applicant possesses a DEA number, the applicant shall provide it to the
OPLC. Failure to register within 90 days
of the initial issuance of a license shall constitute professional misconduct
within the meaning of RSA 317-A:17, II and shall be grounds for disciplinary
action. A licensee shall not engage in the prescribing or dispensing of
controlled substances in schedules II-IV without having registered with the New
Hampshire PDMP.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; amd by #4257, eff 4-15-87; ss by #5110, eff
4-4-91; rpld by #5755, eff 12-14-93
New. #5755, eff 12-14-93 (from Den 301.04); amd by #6186, eff 2-17-96; amd by
#6541, eff 7-18-97; ss by #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd by
#7270, eff 5-12-00; amd by #7557, eff 9-20-01; amd by #7661, eff 3-13-02; amd by
#7778, eff 10-10-02; amd by #7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #7970, eff 10-10-03; amd
by #8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #8963, eff 8-16-07; amd by
#9256, eff 9-10-08; amd by #9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd by #10068, eff 1-10-12; amd
by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #10824, eff 5-6-15;
ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; amd by #13233,
EMERGENCY RULE, eff 7-15-21, EXPIRED:
1-11-22; ss by #13367, eff 4-19-22 (see Revision
Note at chapter heading for Den 300); ss by #14187, eff 4-4-25
Den 301.03 Application
for Temporary Licensure.
(a)
A temporary dental or dental hygiene license shall be granted on an
individual request basis for a professional education program
using dental clinical procedures.
(b)
A temporary license shall be granted on an individual request basis for
research projects having a clinical dental component.
(c)
Applicants
shall meet the minimum requirements for licensure by examination or licensure
by endorsement certification process in
(d)
If the applicant
does not meet the minimum requirements, the board shall require the applicant
to obtain a license through the process utilizing the CDCA or other regional
board clinical performance test or the endorsement certification application
process.
(e)
A temporary license shall be valid for one
year or the length of an educational program or research project, whichever
occurs first.
Source. Editorial Addition; ss by #2981, eff 2-28-85;
ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; rpld by #5755, eff 12-14-93
New. #5755, eff 12-14-93 (from Den 301.06); amd by #6186, eff 2-17-96; ss by #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd by #8260, eff 1-19-05; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #8963, eff 8-16-07; renumbered by #10068; ss by
#10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #10794, eff 3-7-15; ss by #10824, eff 5-6-15; ss by
#10991, eff 12-9-15; renumbered by #14187 (formerly Den 301.05)
Den 301.04
License Activation.
Pursuant to RSA 317-A:16, any dentist or dental hygienist holding an
inactive license shall be restored to active status by the board upon:
(a)
Filing a written request with the board;
(b)
Furnishing evidence of continuing professional character and competence
as follows:
(1) Having a letter of good standing sent
directly to the New Hampshire dental board from any dental board where the
applicant has practiced; and
(2) If the applicant has not been practicing for:
a. Three years or less, submitting evidence of
current continuing education equivalent to 20 hours per year for dentists and
10 hours per year for dental hygienists;
b. More than 3 years but less than 5 years,
submitting evidence of current continuing education and completion of a
refresher course approved by the board; and
c. Five years or more, the applicant shall pass
the entire American Board of Dental Examiners (ADEX) examination, including a periodontal scaling exam, within 6 months
prior to license activation; and
(c)
Payment of the full registration fee adopted in Den 301.08.
(d) A completed criminal history records check and fingerprint card, seeking
both a New Hampshire and a federal records check, in accordance with the
procedure and payment requirements specified by the NH department of safety at
Saf-C 5700, and if the federal criminal history records check shows the
existence of a criminal record in another state, the applicant shall obtain a
detailed criminal record check directly from that state and provide it to the
board.
Source. #6909, eff 12-9-98; ss by #6975, eff 4-10-99;
ss by #7270, eff 5-12-00; ss by #7929, eff 8-6-03; ss by #8260, eff 1-19-05; ss
by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd and renumbered by #10068,
eff 1-10-12 (from Den 301.04); ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #13367, eff
4-19-22 (see Revision Note at chapter heading for Den 300); renumbered by
#14187 (formerly Den 301.06)
Den 301.05 Application for Temporary Licensure to
Provide Voluntary Services.
(a)
A license shall be granted on an individual request basis for the
provision of voluntary dental or dental hygiene services.
(b) Pursuant to RSA 317-A:8 II, the
applicant shall complete and submit an “Application for Registration and
License Renewal – Volunteer” form, effective November 2017.
(c)
Licensure to provide volunteer services shall be issued:
(1) Only for the provision of voluntary services
without pay or compensation for work or service performed; and
(2) For specific programs and locations.
(d)
A license to provide volunteer services shall be valid for not more than
one year, and shall expire on May 1.
(e)
Applicants for subsequent licenses to provide volunteer services shall
comply with (b) above to the extent the information originally provided is no
longer complete or accurate.
(f)
There shall be no fees relative to licensure to provide voluntary
services.
(g)
There shall be no continuing education requirements, except that
applicants shall maintain BLS-HCP certification and shall have taken 2 CEU’s in
infection control each biennium.
(h) Retired dentists and retired dental
hygienists seeking a license to provide voluntary services shall have had all
their dental licenses or dental hygiene licenses in good standing at the time
they retired.
Source. #7661, eff 3-13-02; ss by #8260, eff 1-19-05;
ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #9973, eff 8-9-11;
renumbered by #10068 (from Den 301.05); EXPIRED 3-9-15 (paras. (a)-(c) &
(e)-(h)); ss by #11053, eff 3-10-16; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; renumbered by
#14187 (formerly Den 301.07)
Den 301.06 Change in Name or Address.
(a)
All persons licensed to practice dentistry or
dental hygiene in this state shall notify the board in writing within 30 days
of a name change and provide the board a copy of the
documentation that legally changed the name, if any.
(b)
All persons licensed to practice dentistry or
dental hygiene in this state shall notify the board in writing within 30 days
of any change of business, residential, or email address.
(c)
All persons licensed to practice dentistry or
dental hygiene in this state who fail to notify the board in writing within 30
days of any change of business, residential, or email address shall be issued a
letter of concern.
Source. #8260, eff 1-19-05 (from Saf-C 301.05); ss by
#8838, eff 3-9-07; renumbered by #10068 (from Den 301.07); ss by #10794, eff
3-7-15; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; renumbered by #14187 (formerly Den 301.09)
Den 301.07 Military Service Active License. Active dental or dental hygiene licensure
shall be granted to persons holding an inactive
Source. #8260, eff 1-19-05 (from Saf-C 301.06); ss by
#8838, eff 3-9-07; renumbered by #10068 (from Den 301.08); ss by #10794, eff
3-7-15; renumbered by #14187 (formerly Den 301.10)
Den 301.08 Reinstatement of Lapsed Licenses.
(a)
When a license has lapsed as a result of
failure of the applicant to submit a completed renewal application, the
applicant shall, no later than November 1 of the year the license lapsed, print
or type on the reinstatement the following:
(1) For dental hygienist reinstatement, the ination required for initial dental hygienist licensure,
pursuant to Den 301.01 (a)(1) - (7), (9) - (12), and (16), Den 301.01 (b), (c),
(d), and documentation showing that the applicant has completed 20 CEUs for the
biennium; and
(2) For dentist reinstatement, the ination required by initial dentist licensure, pursuant to
Den 301.02 (a)(1) - (7), (9) - (11), (15), Den 301.02 (b), (c), (d), and
documentation showing that the applicant has completed 40 CEUs for the biennium.
(b) The applicant shall submit a registration fee
and reinstatement fee with the reinstatement application, as set forth in Den
301.08.
(c) If reinstating to active status, the
applicant shall retake the NH dental jurisprudence examination.
(d)
A completed criminal
history records check and fingerprint card, seeking both a New Hampshire and a
federal records check, in accordance with the procedure and payment
requirements specified by the NH department of safety at Saf-C 5700, and if the
federal criminal history records check shows the existence of a criminal record
in another state, the applicant shall obtain a detailed criminal record check
directly from that state and provide it to the board.
Source. #9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd
by #9973, eff 8-9-11; renumbered by #10068 (from Den 301.10); ss by #10991, eff
12-9-15; ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by #13367,
eff 4-19-22 (see Revision Note at chapter heading for Den 300); renumbered by #14187 (formerly Den 301.12)
Den 301.09 Restricted License.
(a)
A restricted license shall limit a dentist or dental hygienist to
performing those procedures specified by the board.
(b)
Restricted licenses shall be issued:
(1) To dentists and dental hygienists who are
limited to performing some, but not all, procedures to acceptable professional
standards thereby protecting the public; and
(2) To dentists and dental hygienists who are in need of remedial training in specific areas to reach
professional standards that protect the public
welfare.
Source. #9408-B, eff 3-10-09; renumbered by #10068
(from Den 301.11); ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ); renumbered by #14187 (formerly
Den 301.13)
PART
Den 302 QUALIFICATIONS AND SUPERVISION
Den 302.01 Purpose. The purpose of this section is to establish
the qualification requirements for dentists, dental hygienists and dental
assistants pursuant to RSA 317-A:12, XII-b.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; ss by #6186, eff 2-17-96; ss by #6909, eff
12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #10794, eff 3-7-15
Den 302.02 Supervision.
(a) “Direct supervision” means a
dentist with an active license is in the dental office, authorizes the
procedure, and remains in the dental office while the procedures are being
performed, and evaluates the performance of the dental hygienist or dental
assistant before dismissal of the patient.
(b)
“Indirect supervision” means a
dentist with an active license is in the dental office, authorizes the
procedures, and remains in the dental office while the procedures are being
performed by the dental hygienist or dental assistant, and evaluates the
performance of the dental hygienist or dental assistant at a subsequent
appointment.
(c)
“General supervision” means a
dentist with an active license has authorized the procedures, and the
procedures are being carried out in accordance with the dentist’s diagnosis and
treatment plan, and the procedures will be personally evaluated and reviewed by
the dentist with the patient at least once in a 12 month
period.
(d)
“Public health supervision” means a dentist with an active license
authorizes procedures which are to be carried out by:
(1) A dental hygienist with an active license
practicing in a school, hospital or other institution, or for a homebound
person without the dentist having to be present, provided the dentist has
reviewed the records once in a 12 month period; or
(2) A dental assistant in a school, hospital or
other institution, or for a homebound person who shall be supervised by a CPHDH
as set forth in Den 401.01 (d).
(e)
For purposes of (c) above, at the time the procedures performed under
general supervision are evaluated, dentists shall use their professional
judgment to determine whether a more extensive oral examination is appropriate.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; ss by #6186, eff 2-17-96; ss by #6909, eff
12-9-98; amd by #7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by
#8584, eff 3-16-06; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by
#8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #10068, eff 1-10-12; amd by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; EXPIRED: 3-9-15 (paras.
(a)-(c) & (e)); ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15
Den 302.03 Dental Hygienist Qualifications. In addition to the qualifications included in
RSA 317-A:21, an applicant for examination and registration as a dental
hygienist in the state of New Hampshire shall have taken and passed the
American Board of Dental Examiners (ADEX) dental hygiene examination, or other
similar U.S. regional or state board examination for dental hygienists,
including clinical procedure components.
The applicant shall complete the examination within the 3 year period prior to the completion of the licensing
process in New Hampshire, unless the applicant seeks licensure by endorsement
certification as provided in Den 301.01 (h) pursuant to RSA 317-A:12 III, in
which circumstance the 3 year period shall not apply.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; amd
by #5699, eff 9-14-93; amd by #6186, eff 2-17-96; ss
by #6909, eff 12-9-98; ss by #7270, eff 5-12-00; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by
#9408-B, eff 3-10-09; ss by #10437, eff 10-8-13); ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15
Den 302.04 Dentist Qualifications.
(a)
In addition to the qualifications included in RSA 317-A:8, an applicant
for dental licensure by examination in the state of New Hampshire shall have
taken and passed the American Board of Dental Examiners (ADEX) examination, or
other similar U.S. regional or state board clinical examination for dentist,
including a clinical periodontal/scaling component. The examination shall be completed within the
3 year period prior to the completion of the licensing
process in New Hampshire, unless the applicant seeks licensure by endorsement
certification as provided in Den 301.02 (h), pursuant to RSA 317-A:12 III, in
which circumstance the 3 year period shall not apply.
(b) Dentists announcing specialization and
limitation of practice shall adhere to section 5-H of the American Dental
Association Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct, as amended 2016,
and referenced in Appendix II, except as provided in (c) below.
(c)
Dentists may announce diplomate status granted by a bona fide national
organization which is not recognized as a certifying board by the American
Dental Association but grants diplomate status based upon the dentist’s
postgraduate education, experience and written and oral examinations based upon
psychometric principles. The announcement, if made by a general dentist, shall
indicate that he or she is a general dentist.
(d) Dentists who wish to perform
botulinum toxin or dermafiller procedures shall
submit documentation to the board that demonstrates completion of at least 8
hours of hands-on training prior to performing such procedures.
Source. #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd
by #7270, eff 5-12-00; amd by #7778, eff 10-10-02; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #9973, eff 8-9-11; amd by
#10068, eff 1-10-12; ss by #10437, eff 10-8-13; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss
by #12428, eff 12-6-17; amd by #12549, eff 6-15-18
Den 302.05 Dental Hygienist Qualification in Specific
Area.
(a) Any dental hygienist shall be considered
qualified in a specific area if he or she has successfully completed an
expanded duty course, or successfully challenged an examination in same, or
both, as stated in Den 302.05 (a) through (q).
Course records, pursuant to Den 403.06, and a certificate of course
completion shall be retained by the course participant and provided to the
board upon request by the board.
(b)
Any dental hygienist may petition the board for approval of an expanded
duty course or equivalent training course.
The petition shall include all information that the petitioner wishes
the board to consider in evaluating the proposed course, such as the entity
giving the course, an outline of the topics to be covered, the number of hours
of lectures and hours of practical experience and the textbooks to be used.
(c)
No dental hygienist shall be considered qualified prior to the date that
he or she is officially informed by the course or examination provider that he
or she has successfully completed an expanded duty course approved by the
board.
(d) Any dental hygienist shall be
considered qualified in provisional crown and bridge restorations after
successfully completing an expanded duty course in provisional crown and bridge
restorations which:
(1) Is offered by a continuing education provider
as defined in Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Provisional restoration anatomy;
b. Occlusal requirements; and
c. Cementation; and
(4) Provides to the dental hygienist
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(e) If qualification in provisional
crown and bridge restorations is determined, the duty shall be performed with
the following conditions:
(1) A dental hygienist qualified in provisional
crown and bridge restorations shall perform this service only under the direct
supervision of a licensed dentist;
(2) The provisional restoration may be fabricated
intraorally, however all occlusal adjustments and
modifications shall be completed extraorally; and
(3) The completed provisional restoration shall
be examined by the dentist prior to cementation by a qualified dental
hygienist.
(f)
Any dental hygienist shall be considered qualified in orthodontic duties
after successfully completing an expanded duty course in orthodontic duties
which:
(1) Is offered by a continuing education provider
as defined in Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Placement and removal of orthodontic
separators;
b. Preparation of teeth for bonding of brackets;
c. Removal of orthodontic bands or brackets;
d. Trial fitting of orthodontic bands;
e. Using hand instruments to remove excess
cement from bands on the coronal surfaces of the teeth;
f. Trial fitting of head gear;
g. Simple emergency adjustment of orthodontic
appliances to relieve pain;
h. Taking impressions for orthodontic
appliances;
i. Attachment or tying in and removal of
orthodontic wires; and
j. Bending arch wires; and
(4) Provides to the dental hygienist
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(g) If qualification in orthodontics
is determined, the duty shall be performed with the
following conditions:
(1) A dental hygienist qualified in orthodontic
duties shall perform this service only under the direct supervision of a
licensed dentist.
(h)
The duty of placing dental sealants shall be performed under the general
supervision or public health supervision of a licensed dentist.
(i) Any dental hygienist shall be considered
qualified in local anesthesia only after successfully completing an expanded
duty course in local anesthesia which:
(1) Is offered by an institution accredited by
CODA;
(2) Is a minimum of 20 didactic hours and 12
clinical hours;
(3) Entails passing the local anesthesia
examination given by the CDCA;
(4) Includes at least the following topics:
a. Neurophysiology of pain and pain control;
b. Pharmacology of local anesthetic solutions
and drug interactions;
c. Potential local and systemic complications;
d. Medical and dental indications and
contraindications;
e. Medical and dental history assessment;
f. Safely assembling and handling a syringe;
g. Locating anatomical landmarks associated with
local anesthesia;
h. Injection techniques;
i. Hands-on experience with maxillary and
mandibular injections by administering at least 6 infiltration and 6 block
injections; and
j. Legal issues associated with local anesthesia
administration by a dental hygienist; and
(5) Provides to
the dental hygienist written evidence certifying that
the course has been successfully completed and which is signed by the course
provider.
(j)
If qualification in local anesthesia is determined, the duty shall be
performed with the following conditions:
(1) A dental hygienist qualified in local
anesthesia shall:
a. Administer local anesthesia only under the
direct supervision of a dentist; and
b. Display at his or her place of practice proof
of anesthesia qualification approved by the board;
(2) Any hygienist graduating from a CODA
accredited school of dental hygiene shall comply with (i)
above if a local anesthesia course meeting the foregoing requirements was not
part of the school curriculum;
(3) A dental hygienist who has qualified to
administer local anesthesia in another jurisdiction may qualify for endorsement
by the board to perform that function by presenting written documentation of
training equivalent to (i) above and a letter from a
supervising dentist attesting to the hygienist's experience administering local
anesthesia within the previous 2 years; and
(4) Students enrolled in a CODA accredited school
of dental hygiene, who have passed a local anesthesia course as part of the
school curriculum, shall not be in violation of this rule if they administer
local anesthesia as part of a dental hygiene examination.
(k) To obtain a local anesthesia permit, a dental
hygienist qualified to administer local anesthesia shall provide to the board:
(1) A written request and a certified check or
money order made payable to the "Treasurer, State of New Hampshire"
for the local anesthesia fee specified in Den 301.08, or if presented in
person, the payment may be in cash;
(2) Proof of course completion. Applicants whose course was taken out of
state shall also provide a copy of the course syllabus; and
(3) His or her CDCA score.
(l)
Any dental hygienist shall be considered qualified to monitor the
administration of nitrous oxide (N2O) to patients after successfully
completing an expanded duty course in monitoring the administration of nitrous
oxide which:
(1) Is offered by a course provider as defined in
Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 6 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Aspects of pain and anxiety;
b. Anatomy and physiology of respiration;
c. Stages of drug induced central nervous system
depression;
d. Pharmacology and physiological effects of
nitrous oxide;
e. Advantages and disadvantages of inhalation sedation using nitrous oxide;
f. Medical assessment of patient
prior to using nitrous oxide; and
g. Proper administration of nitrous oxide to
include:
1. Description and use of inhalation equipment;
2. Patient monitoring;
3. Possible reactions of patients under nitrous
oxide;
4. Hazards of nitrous oxide for patients and operator; and
5. Management of complications;
(4) Requires the passing of a written test
administered by the course provider; and
(5) Provides to the dental hygienist
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(m) If qualification in monitoring the
administration of nitrous oxide (N2O) is determined, the duty shall
be performed with the following conditions:
(1) A dental
hygienist qualified in the monitoring of nitrous oxide shall monitor nitrous
oxide only under the direct supervision of a dentist;
(2) A dental hygienist qualified to monitor the
administration of nitrous oxide shall monitor only after a dentist has
initiated the administration and brought the patient to the intended level of
nitrous oxide inhalation sedation;
(3) A dental hygienist qualified to monitor the
administration of nitrous oxide shall be currently certified in BLS-HCP; and
(4) A dental
hygienist who has qualified to monitor nitrous oxide in another jurisdiction
may qualify for endorsement by the board to perform that function by presenting
written documentation of training equivalent to (l) above and a letter from a
supervising dentist attesting to the hygienist's experience monitoring nitrous
oxide within the previous 2 years.
(n) Any dental hygienist shall be
considered qualified to administer nitrous oxide (N2O) for minimal
sedation of patients after successfully completing an expanded duty course in
the monitoring and administration of nitrous oxide which:
(1) Is offered by an institution accredited by
CODA;
(2) Is a minimum of 8 didactic hours and 6
clinical hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Physiological and psychological aspects of
pain and anxiety;
b. Stages of drug induced central nervous system
depression;
c. Anatomy and physiology as they relate to inhalation sedation;
d. Indications and contraindications of
inhalation sedation;
e. Pharmacology and physiological effects of
nitrous oxide, including drug interactions;
f. Medical assessment of patient
prior to using nitrous oxide;
g. Description and use of inhalation sedation
equipment;
h. Monitoring of patient’s vital functions;
i. Preventing, recognizing and managing possible
complications of inhalation sedation;
j. Health hazards and techniques to limit
occupational exposure;
k. Abuse potential of nitrous oxide; and
l. Maintenance of proper records;
(4) Requires the passing of a written test
administered by the course provider;
(5) Requires successfully completing a clinical
evaluation by the course provider; and
(6) Provides to
the dental hygienist written evidence certifying that
the course has been successfully completed and which is signed by the course
provider.
(o) If qualification in the
administration of nitrous oxide (N2O) is determined, the duty shall
be performed with the following conditions:
(1) A dental hygienist qualified in the
administration of nitrous oxide shall:
a. Administer nitrous oxide only under the
direct supervision of a dentist; and
b. Display at his
or her place of practice proof of a nitrous oxide qualification course approved
by the board;
(2) Any hygienist graduating from CODA accredited
school of dental hygiene shall comply with (l) above if a nitrous oxide course
meeting the foregoing requirements was not part of the school curriculum;
(3) A dental hygienist who has qualified to
administer nitrous oxide in another jurisdiction may qualify for endorsement by
the board to perform that function by presenting written documentation of
training equivalent to (l) above and a letter from a supervising dentist
attesting to the hygienist's experience administering nitrous oxide within the
previous 2 years; and
(4) Students enrolled in a CODA accredited school
of dental hygiene, who have passed a nitrous oxide course as part of the school
curriculum, shall not be in violation of this rule if they administer nitrous
oxide as part of a dental hygiene examination.
(p) Those individuals who qualify in
the administration of nitrous oxide on or after January 1, 2018
shall be issued a permit upon submission of the following:
(1) Proof of course completion and, if the course
was taken out of state, a copy of the course syllabus;
(2) A written request; and
(3) A check or money order made payable to the
"Treasurer, State of New Hampshire" for the application fee specified
in Den 301.08, or if presented in person, the payment
may be in cash.
(q)
In-office tooth whitening shall be performed under general supervision.
Source. #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd
by #7270, eff 5-12-00; amd by #7778, eff 10-10-02; amd by #7818, eff 1-9-03; amd by
#7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #7970, eff 10-10-03; amd by #8100, eff 6-11-04; amd by
#8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #8963, eff 8-16-07; amd by
#9256, eff 9-10-08; ss by 9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd by
#9778, eff 9-3-10; amd by #9973, eff 8-9-11; amd by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; amd
by #10437, eff 10-8-13; ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15;
ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17
Den 302.06 Dental Assistant Qualification in Specific
Area.
(a)
Any dental assistant who is 18 years of age or older shall be considered
qualified in a specific area if he or she has successfully completed an
expanded duty course, or successfully challenged an examination in same, or
both, as stated in Den 302.06 (a) through (ac). A course or exam given by an
entity other than the board itself shall include the passing grade or other
standard for successful completion of said course or exam set by the entity
giving said course or exam. Course records, pursuant to Den 403.06, and a
certificate of course completion shall be retained by the course participant
and provided to the board upon request by the board. Traditional dental
assistants, before qualifying in any other area addressed in Den 302.06, shall
have taken and passed an introduction to dental assisting course and qualify
for infection control in the dental office as stated in Den 302.06(b)(1)c.
(b) Traditional dental assistants shall qualify in
infection control in the dental office after successfully completing a course
in the topic, as follows:
(1) The expanded duty course shall:
a. Be offered by a course provider as defined in
Den 403.07(a)(1);
b. Be a minimum of 4 hours;
c. Pursuant to RSA 317-A:17, II (g), follow the
current Centers for Disease Control “Infection Control Recommendations for the
Dental Office and the Dental Laboratory”; and
d. Require the
passing of a written exam administered by the continuing education provider;
and
(2) Written evidence certifying that the
infection control course has been successfully completed shall be signed by the
course provider and given to the dental assistant.
(c)
Any dental assistant may petition the board for approval of an expanded
duty course or equivalent training course.
The petition shall include all information that the petitioner wishes
the board to consider in evaluating the proposed course, such as the entity
giving the course, an outline of the topics to be covered, the number of hours
of lectures and hours of practical experience and the textbooks to be used. The
board shall, within 60 days of receipt of such petition, send written notice of
approval or a written request for further information from the petitioner.
(d)
No dental assistant shall be considered qualified prior to the date that
he or she is officially informed by the course or examination provider that he
or she has successfully completed an expanded duty course approved by the
board.
(e)
A traditional dental assistant shall have 200 hours of experience in
clinical dental assisting in order to qualify to take
a course in introduction to dental assisting, which course shall be a
prerequisite to any other expanded duty course described in this section.
(f)
Any introduction to dental assisting course shall:
(1) Be offered by a course provider as defined in
Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Be a minimum of 6 hours;
(3) Contain at least the following subjects:
a. The taking of medical and dental histories;
b. Obtaining and reading vital signs;
c. Oral and dental anatomy;
d. Charting existing restorations and teeth;
e. Inspection of the oral cavity; and
f. The Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA);
(4) Require the passing of a written examination
administered by the continuing education provider; and
(5) Provide to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed,
which is signed by the course provider.
(g)
Any dental assistant who successfully completes the introduction to
dental assisting course shall be qualified to perform those duties set forth in
Den 401.01 and Den 401.02.
(h)
Any traditional dental assistant shall have 200 hours of experience in
clinical dental assisting in order to qualify to take
a radiology course.
(i) Any dental assistant shall be considered
qualified in dental radiology after successfully completing an expanded duty
course in dental radiology which:
(1) Is offered by
a continuing education provider as specified in Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 lecture hours, which may be
taken online, and 8 laboratory hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Asepsis, radiation safety;
b. Parallel and bi-secting
techniques;
c. Full mouth projections, panoramic
projections, projections, and extra-oral projections;
d. Dark room procedures;
e. Radiographic landmarks, interpretation, and
mounting;
f. Passing the
radiology written examination of the Dental Assisting National Board, provided
that dental assistants who have been practicing since before
December 9, 1998 shall be exempt from taking and
passing the DANB exam; and
g. Passing of a written exam administered by the
continuing education provider; and
(4) Provides to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(j)
The duty of dental radiology shall be performed only under the direct
supervision of a licensed dentist.
(k)
Any traditional dental assistant shall have 200 hours of experience in
clinical dental assisting in order to qualify to take
a course in provision crown and bridge restorations.
(l)
Any dental assistant shall be considered qualified in provisional crown
and bridge restorations after successfully completing an expanded duty course
in provisional crown and bridge restorations which:
(1) Is offered by a continuing education provider
as defined in Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Provisional restoration anatomy;
b. Occlusal requirements;
c. Cementation; and
d. Passing of a written exam administered by the
continuing education provider; and
(4) Provides to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(m)
The duty of provisional crown and bridge restorations shall be performed
with the following conditions:
(1) A dental assistant qualified in provisional
crown and bridge restorations shall perform this service only under the direct
supervision of a licensed dentist;
(2) The provisional restoration may be fabricated
intraorally, however all occlusal adjustments and
modifications shall be completed extraorally; and
(3) The completed provisional restoration shall
be examined by the dentist prior to cementation by a qualified dental
assistant.
(n)
Any traditional dental assistant shall have at least 200 hours of
experience in clinical dental assisting in order to
qualify to take a course in orthodontics.
(o)
Any traditional dental assistant shall be considered qualified in
orthodontic duties after successfully completing an expanded duty course in
orthodontic duties which:
(1) Is offered by a continuing education provider
as defined in Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Placement and removal of orthodontic
separators;
b. Preparation of teeth for bonding of brackets;
c. Removal of orthodontic bands or brackets;
d. Trial fitting of orthodontic bands;
e. Using hand instruments to remove excess
cement from bands on the coronal surfaces of the teeth;
f. Trial fitting of head gear;
g. Simple emergency adjustment of orthodontic
appliances to relieve pain;
h. Taking impressions for orthodontic
appliances;
i. Attachment or tying in and removal of
orthodontic wires;
j. Bending arch wires; and
k. Passing of a
written exam administered by the continuing education provider; and
(4) Provides to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(p)
The duty of orthodontics shall only be performed under the direct
supervision of a licensed dentist.
(q)
Any traditional dental assistant shall have at
400 hours of experience in clinical dental assisting in order
to qualify to take a sealants course.
(r)
Any traditional dental assistant shall be considered qualified in dental
sealants after successfully completing an expanded duty course in dental
sealants which:
(1) Is offered by a continuing education provider
as specified in Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Use of chemical and light cured sealants;
b. Proper techniques of
applying sealants;
c. Isolation techniques;
d. Practice in applying sealants in a laboratory
setting;
e. Application of sealants on an actual patient
in a clinical setting; and
f. Passing an exam administered by the
continuing education provider; and
(4) Provides to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(s)
The duty of dental sealants shall only be performed under the direct
supervision of a licensed dentist.
(t) Traditional dental assistants shall
have experience consisting of at least 400 hours in clinical dental assisting in order to qualify to take a course in coronal polishing.
(u) Any dental assistant other than a
graduate dental assistant shall be considered qualified in coronal polishing
after meeting the eligibility requirements and successfully completing an
expanded duty course in coronal polishing which:
(1) Is offered by a continuing education provider
as set forth in Den 403.07 (a);
(2) Is a minimum of 8 hours; and
(3) Includes at least the following subjects:
a. Handpiece maintenance and sterilization;
b. Polishing agents;
c. Polishing techniques;
d. Infection control;
e. Medical and dental history indications and
contraindications;
f. Hands-on polishing in a clinical setting; and
g. Passing of a written examination administered
by the continuing education provider; and
(4) Provides to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(v)
The duty of coronal polishing shall be performed with the following
conditions:
(1) Coronal polishing by dental assistants shall
be accomplished by a combination of slow speed handpiece,
not to exceed 10,000 rpm, and appropriate polishing agents with a rubber cup or
bristle brush;
(2) Coronal
polishing shall be accomplished by dental assistants only after a dentist or
dental hygienist has determined that the teeth are free of calculus;
(3) A dental
assistant qualified in coronal polishing shall perform this service only under
the direct supervision of a licensed dentist or dental hygienist; and
(4) Coronal polishing shall in no way be
represented as a prophylaxis unless a dentist or dental hygienist has
determined the teeth are free of calculus immediately prior to the polishing.
(w)
Any traditional dental assistant shall have 400 hours of experience in
clinical dental assisting prior to taking an expanded duty course in monitoring
the administration of nitrous oxide anesthesia.
(x)
Any traditional dental assistant shall be considered qualified to
monitor the administration of nitrous oxide (N2O) to patients after
successfully completing an expanded duty course in monitoring the
administration of nitrous oxide which:
(1) Is offered by a course provider as defined in
Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 6 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following:
a. Aspects of pain and anxiety;
b. Anatomy and physiology of respiration;
c. Stages of drug induced central nervous system
depression;
d. Pharmacology and physiological effects of
nitrous oxide;
e. Advantages and disadvantages of inhalation sedation using nitrous oxide;
f. Medical assessment of patient
prior to using nitrous oxide; and
g. Proper administration of nitrous oxide to
include:
1. Description and use of inhalation equipment;
2. Patient monitoring;
3. Possible reactions of patients under nitrous
oxide;
4. Hazards of nitrous oxide for patients and operator; and
5. Management of complications;
(4) Requires the passing of a written examination
administered by the continuing education provider; and
(5) Provides to
the dental assistant written evidence certifying that
the course has been successfully completed and which is signed by the course
provider.
(y) If qualification in monitoring the
administration of nitrous oxide is determined, the duty shall be performed with
the following conditions:
(1) A dental assistant qualified in the
monitoring of nitrous oxide shall monitor nitrous oxide only under the direct
supervision of a dentist;
(2) A dental assistant qualified to monitor the
administration of nitrous oxide shall monitor only after a dentist has
initiated the administration and brought the patient to the intended level of
nitrous oxide inhalation sedation; and
(3) A dental assistant qualified to monitor the
administration of nitrous oxide shall be currently certified in BHLS-HCP; and
(4) A dental assistant who has qualified to
monitor nitrous oxide in another jurisdiction shall qualify for endorsement by
the board to perform that function by presenting written documentation of training
equivalent to (x) above and a letter from a supervising dentist attesting to
the assistant's experience monitoring nitrous oxide within the previous 2
years.
(z)
Any traditional dental assistant shall have at least 400 hours in
clinical dental assisting in order to qualify to take
a course in office whitening.
(aa)
A dental assistant shall be qualified to perform in-office tooth whitening after successfully completing an expanded
duty course in in-office tooth whitening which:
(1) Is offered by a course provider as defined in
Den 403.07(a)(1);
(2) Is a minimum of 4 hours;
(3) Includes at least the following;
a. An overview of prescription and
non-prescription whitening systems;
b. Mechanisms of action;
c. Treatment methods;
d. Safety considerations, including:
1. Contraindications; and
2. Side effects; and
e. Passing of a written examination administered
by the continuing education provider; and
(4) Provides to the dental assistant
written evidence certifying that the course has been successfully completed and
which is signed by the course provider.
(ab)
The duty of in-office tooth whitening shall only be performed under the
direct supervision of a licensed dentist.
Source. #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by #13445, eff
9-14-22
Den 302.07 Expanded Function Dental Auxiliary (EFDA).
(a) Any
dental hygienist, or certified or graduate dental assistant as defined in Den
401.02, shall be considered qualified to place, contour and adjust direct
restorative materials within the oral cavity after successfully completing an
expanded function dental auxiliary (EFDA) course in dental restorations, as
follows:
(1) The direct dental restorations course shall
have the following prerequisites:
a. Course candidates shall be a registered
dental hygienist, or a dental assistant who is certified by the Dental
Assistant National Board or is a graduate of a CODA accredited school of dental
assisting;
b. All candidates shall have a minimum of 4,500
hours of dental clinical experience;
c. All candidates shall be recommended for the
course by a dentist with an active NH dental license;
d. Dental assistants, other than graduate dental
assistants, shall be qualified to perform a preliminary inspection of the oral
cavity, pursuant to Den 302.05 (d); and
e. All candidates shall be
currently certified in BLS-HCP; and
(2) The EFDA course in direct dental restorations
shall:
a. Be offered by an institution accredited by
CODA;
b. Be a minimum of 50 didactic hours and 100
hours of pre-clinical training in a curriculum approved by the board;
c. Include at least the following subjects:
1. Dental materials;
2. Use of the low speed
hand piece and high speed hand piece;
3. Placement and finishing of amalgams, and
composite resins;
4. Dental occlusion; and
5. Dental jurisprudence;
d. Include assessment certifying successful
course completion and provide written evidence signed by the course provider
and given to the hygienist or dental assistant; and
e. Be followed by 6 weeks, minimum of 120 hours,
of training in a dental office under the direct supervision and monitoring by
the faculty of a school accredited by CODA or its designate.
(b) The
following shall apply to all
EFDA's:
(1) The EFDA shall register with the board and
submit proof of the required EFDA training and experience, as well as a fee to
obtain an EFDA permit from the board;
(2) The EFDA shall renew the EFDA permit in odd
numbered years before May 1st, if EFDA employment is continued;
(3) The EFDA shall prominently display the permit
where the EFDA works;
(4) A maximum of 2 EFDA’s shall be employed in a
dental practice regardless of the number of dentists;
(5) Dentists shall inform the board of EFDA’s employed within 10 days of employment;
(6) EFDA’s shall complete 10 CEU’s each biennium
in restorative dentistry;
(7) A dental auxiliary who has qualified in the
placement, contouring and adjustment of direct dental restorations in another
jurisdiction may qualify for endorsement by the board to perform that function
by presenting written documentation of training equivalent to (a) above and a
letter from a supervising dentist attesting to the auxiliary’s experience with
direct restorations within the previous 2 years; and
(8) EFDA’s shall practice under the direct
supervision of a
Source. #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff
12-6-17 (formerly Den 302.06)
Den 302.08 Certified Public Health Dental Hygienist
(CPHDH).
(a)
Any dental hygienist shall be considered qualified as a CPHDH after:
(1) Obtaining a bachelor’s degree in dental
hygiene with a minimum of 6 semester hours in community dental health;
(2) Obtaining a master’s degree in public health;
or
(3) Successfully completing the following courses
which are offered by a continuing education provider as defined in Den
403.07(a)(1) and by successful completion of an examination by the course
provider:
a. Caries stabilization in the public health
setting which:
1. Is a minimum of 6 hours; and
2. Includes at least the following:
(i) Indications for
interim therapeutic restorations (ITRs);
(ii) Appropriate technique for placing ITRs;
(iii) Variables that influence the success of ITRs;
(iv) Selection of intermediary materials for
specific restoration; and
(v) Characteristics and handling of intermediary
materials and follow-up coding;
b. Evidence based dentistry which:
1. Is a minimum of 4 hours; and
2. Includes at least the following:
(i) Evidence based
approach to dental treatment;
(ii) Applying evidence based
theory to public health practice; and
(iii) Hands-on computer
experience relevant to practice;
c. Infection control in public health settings
which:
1. Is a minimum of 4 hours; and
2. Includes at least the following:
(i) Lecture and hands
on experience;
(ii) Review of latest infection control procedures
in dentistry; and
(iii) Proper asepsis techniques while working in
non-traditional settings;
d. Medical management in public health dental
settings which:
1. Is a minimum of 6 hours; and
2. Includes at least the following:
(i) Both lecture and
hands-on learning;
(ii) Systemic conditions and diseases with
emphasis on dental hygiene treatment planning;
(iii) Management
of dental and medical emergencies in alternative dental settings; and
(iv) Pharmacology review of current therapy for
the most common disease states with an emphasis on high-risk patients; and
e. Management of medical records which:
1. Is a minimum of 4 hours; and
2. Includes at least the following:
(i) Legal
requirements for medical records;
(ii) Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
(FERPA);
(iii) Guidance in drafting a Privacy Impact
Assessment (PIA); and
(iv) New Hampshire law for reporting patient
abuse.
(b)
The following shall apply to qualification as a CPHDH:
(1) All CPHDHs shall have:
a. Practiced as a dental hygienist for 3200
hours, 1600 hours of which shall be within the 2 years prior to certification;
b. Completed a course in caries stabilization
that is a minimum of 6 hours as outlined in (a)(3)a; and
c. Qualified in dental sealants pursuant to Den
302.05(h), if similar training was not received as part of the dental hygiene
school curriculum;
(2) Hygienists qualifying as a CPHDH by
completing the courses specified in (a)(3) above shall complete the courses
within the 4 years prior to certification, or if they are already working in a
public health setting, within 4 years of this rule becoming effective;
(3) Documented proof of the completion of all
requirements shall be retained by both the collaborating dentist and hygienist,
and submitted to the board for certification;
(4) Hygienists who have qualified as a CPHDH,
prior to practicing as such, shall have a written collaborative agreement with
a dentist with an active New Hampshire dental license to practice under the
dentist’s supervision;
(5) Hygienists who have qualified as a CPHDH,
prior to practicing as such, shall register with the board and submit proof of
the required training and experience, as well as a fee to obtain certification
from the board;
(6) CPHDHs shall comply with duties listed in RSA
317-A:21-e;
(7) CPHDHs shall display at his or her place of
practice proof of certification approved by the board;
(8) Hygienists who have been granted
certification as a CPHDH shall renew certification in odd-numbered years before
May 1st;
(9) CPHDHs who
fail to renew their certification before May 1st of odd-numbered
years, pursuant to RSA 317-A:13, shall be subject to a late fee pursuant to Den
301.08; and
(10) CPHDHs who
fail to renew their certification before May 1st of odd-numbered
years, pursuant to RSA 317-A:13, shall be subject to a reinstatement fee for
lapsed certification pursuant to Den 301.08.
(c)
Each applicant for certification to practice as a CPHDH in the state of
New Hampshire shall provide the following on the "Application for CPHDH
Certification" form:
(1) Applicant's name;
(2) Applicant's date of birth;
(3) Applicant's place of birth;
(4) Applicant's social security number, pursuant
to RSA 161-B:11, VI-a;
(5) Any other name by which the applicant has
been known;
(6) Applicant's current business and residential
addresses, telephone numbers, and primary email address, either business or
personal;
(7) Name of supervising dentist;
(8) Whether the applicant's BLS-HCP certification
is current, and if so, provide proof;
(9) Applicant's level of education including:
a. Original transcripts of master's degree in
public health, and certificates of completion showing compliance with course
requirements set forth in Den 302.08
(a);
b. Original transcripts of bachelor's degree in
dental hygiene, with a minimum of 6 hours in community dental health, and
certificates of completion showing compliance with course requirements set
forth in Den 302.08 (a); or
c. Registered dental hygienist,
without either a master's degree in public health or bachelor's degree in
dental hygiene, shall submit certificates of completion for those courses
required by Den 302.08 (a) and (b);
(10) Applicant's educational background, including
proof that the applicant has:
a. Practiced as a dental hygienist for 3200
hours, 1600 hours of which shall be within the 2 years prior to certification;
b. Completed a course in caries stabilization
that is a minimum of 6 hours as outlined in Den 302.08(a)(3)(a);
c. Qualified in
dental sealants pursuant to Den 302.05(h), if similar training was not received
as part of the dental hygiene school curriculum; and
d. Completed an approved course in infection
control in public health settings as outlined in Den 302.08(a)(3)c.; and
(11) An unmounted passport-type photograph of the
applicant shall be:
a. Attached to the form;
b. Taken not more than 6 months before the date
on the application; and
c. No smaller than 2 and 1/2 inches square.
(d)
The form shall be signed by the applicant, notarized, and filed with the
board. Deceptive or false statements,
knowingly made by the applicant, shall result in denial of a CPHDH
certificate. By signing the form, the
applicant shall waive any confidentiality regarding disclosure to the board
from any other jurisdiction about any pending complaints or action being taken
against the applicant's license to practice as a CPHDH.
(e)
The form shall be accompanied by the following documents:
(1) A check or money order made payable to the
"Treasurer, State of New Hampshire" for the application fee specified
in Den 301.08, or if presented in person, the payment may be in cash; and
(2) A letter confirming whether the applicant has
a written collaborative agreement with a dentist with an active New Hampshire
dental license to practice under the dentist's supervision.
Source. #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff
12-6-17 (formerly Den 302.07)
PART
Den 303 EXAMINATION
Den 303.01 Dental Examination. Each applicant for a license to practice
dentistry in the state of
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #10794, eff 3-7-15
Den 303.02 Dental Hygienist Examination. Each applicant for a license to practice as a
dental hygienist in the state of
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #10794, eff 3-7-15
Den 303.03 Jurisprudence Exam.
(a) Each applicant for initial licensure to
practice as a dentist or registered dental hygienist shall be examined by the
board of dental examiners on the contents of RSA 317-A Dental Practice Act,
administrative rules Den 100 through 500, the American Dental Association’s
Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct, and the American Dental
Hygienists’ Association Code of Ethics for Dental Hygienists.
(b) The examination shall be:
(1) Taken at home electronically on a secure
website provided to the applicant by the OPLC or, if requested by the
applicant, using pen and paper; and
(2) Open book.
(c) The passing
score for the jurisprudence exam shall be 75%.
Source. #4037, eff 4-9-86; amd
by #4105, eff 8-1-86; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #9408-B, eff
3-10-09; ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #14187, eff 4-4-25
PART
Den 304 USE OF GENERAL ANESTHESIA AND
SEDATION BY DENTISTS
Den 304.01 Definitions.
(a)
“Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of consciousness
during which patients cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully
following repeated or painful stimulation.
The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function might be
impaired. Patients might require
assistance in maintaining a patient airway, and
spontaneous ventilation might be inadequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(b) “Facility hosting permit” means a permit for
a dental facility at which a qualified provider, other than the dentist holding
the permit, administers general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate
sedation, and the qualified provider brings additional anesthesia equipment,
drugs, and supplies to the site beyond what is specified in Den 304.07(a).
(c) “Facility inspection” means an evaluation of
a dental facility for either a facility permit or a facility hosting permit
including inspection of equipment, drugs, and paperwork being supplied by the
facility hosting an anesthesia qualified provider or for a qualified dentist
delivering general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation or for a
qualified dentist delivering moderate sedation only.
(d)
“Facility permit” means a permit for a dental facility at which the
permit holder is a qualified dentist who administers general anesthesia, deep
sedation, and moderate sedation, moderate sedation only, or moderate sedation
with pediatric qualification at the same facility and maintains additional
anesthesia equipment, drugs, and supplies on site as specified in Den 304.07.
(e)
"General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of
consciousness during which patients are not arousable, even by painful
stimulation. The ability to
independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired. Patients often require assistance in
maintaining a patent airway, and positive pressure ventilation might be
required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced
depression of neuromuscular function.
Cardiovascular function might be impaired.
(f) “General anesthesia, deep sedation, and
moderate sedation permit” means a permit issued by the office of professional
licensure and certification (OPLC) authorizing a qualified dentist to
administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation at a
permitted dental facility to patients of all ages.
(g)
“Hosting dentist” means a dentist whose name is on a particular facility
permit or facility hosting permit and therefore holds that permit and is
responsible for that facility.
(h)
“Minimal sedation”, formerly known as “anxiolysis”, means a minimally
depressed level of consciousness, produced by a pharmacological method, that
retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an
airway and respond normally to tactile stimulation and verbal command. Although cognitive function and
coordination might be impaired, ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are
unaffected. Patients whose only response
is reflex withdrawal from repeated painful stimuli are not considered to be in
a state of minimal sedation.
(i) "Moderate sedation”, formerly known as
“conscious sedation”, means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during
which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or
accompanied by light tactile stimulation.
No interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and
spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.
(j) “Moderate sedation only permit” means a
permit issued by the OPLC authorizing a qualified dentist to administer
moderate sedation only at a permitted dental facility and only to patients 13
years of age and older.
(k)
“Moderate sedation permit with pediatric qualification” means a permit issued
by the OPLC authorizing a qualified dentist to administer moderate sedation
only at a permitted dental facility to patients of all ages.
(l) “Operating dentist” means the dentist with
the primary responsibility of performing a dental procedure while a separate
qualified provider administers general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate
sedation on the patient.
(m)
“Pediatric minimal sedation permit” means a permit issued by the OPLC
authorizing a dentist to administer minimal sedation only at a dental facility
in the state of NH to patients under 13 years of age.
(n) “Qualified consultant” means a qualified
provider contracted by the OPLC to serve as an advisory examiner to the board
for determining compliance with the statutory and regulatory provisions of this
chapter.
(o) “Qualified dentist” means a dentist with a
permit to administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation,
moderate sedation only, or moderate sedation with pediatric qualification in
the state of New Hampshire (NH).
(p) “Qualified provider” means a qualified
dentist, a physician anesthesiologist licensed under RSA 329, or a nurse
anesthetist licensed under RSA 326-B:18 delivering general anesthesia, deep
sedation, or moderate sedation in dental facilities in the state of NH.
(q) “Simulated emergency management evaluation”
means an evaluation of the applicant for a permit to administer deep sedation,
general anesthesia, and moderate sedation, moderate sedation only, or moderate
sedation with pediatric qualification on emergency management based on the
protocols for emergencies outlined in Appendix 3 of the American
Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons (AAOMS) “Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual”, 9th
Edition, revised 2018, available as noted in Appendix II.
(r)
“Single dose” means an initial dose, a repeated dose, or a maintenance
dose as recommended by the manufacturer guidelines as found in the Food and
Drug Administration (FDA) “Online Label Repository” located at labels.fda.gov.
Source. #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91,
EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98; ss by #7304, eff 6-9-00; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by
#9256, eff 9-10-08; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #14246, eff 8-3-25,
EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.02 Requirements for Permits
Issued Under This Chapter.
(a) Any dentist licensed to practice dentistry in
NH pursuant to RSA 317-A who seeks to hold a general anesthesia, deep sedation,
and moderate sedation permit, a moderate sedation only permit, or a moderate
sedation permit with pediatric qualification shall first pass a simulated
emergency management evaluation conducted by a qualified consultant at a dental
facility in the state of NH before a permit is issued.
(b) Any dentist licensed to practice dentistry in
NH pursuant to RSA 317-A and holding a general anesthesia, deep sedation, and
moderate sedation permit, a moderate sedation only permit, or a moderate
sedation permit with pediatric qualification shall only be authorized to
administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate
sedation or moderate sedation only as authorized by their permit type at a
dental facility that has been issued a corresponding facility or facility
hosting permit by the OPLC.
(c) Each facility seeking to obtain a facility or
facility hosting permit shall first pass a facility inspection conducted by a
qualified consultant before a permit is issued.
(d) Each dentist who
holds a general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation permit, a
moderate sedation only permit, or a moderate sedation permit with pediatric
qualification shall undergo a simulated emergency management evaluation every 3rd
biennial dental license renewal.
(e)
Each facility holding a facility or facility hosting permit shall undergo a
facility inspection every 3rd biennial certification renewal.
Source.
#14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.03 Permit Types.
(a) The OPLC shall issue the following permits to
dentists or facilities who meet the qualifications for permitting as required
in Den 304.04, complete and submit the appropriate permits’
applications as required in Den 304.05, and pay the applicable fees as required
in Plc 1002.11:
(1)
Facility permits authorizing the administration of one or all of the following levels of sedation, which shall be
stated on the permit and include the facility site:
a.
General anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation;
b.
Moderate sedation only; or
c.
Moderate sedation with pediatric qualification;
(2)
Facility hosting permits authorizing the administration of one or all of the following, which shall be stated on the permit
and include the hosting facility site:
a.
General anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation;
b.
Moderate sedation only; or
c.
Moderate sedation with pediatric qualification;
(3)
General anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation permits which authorize a qualified dentist, licensed by the
state of NH, to administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate
sedation, to patients of all ages in a dental facility that has the required
facility permit or facility hosting permit;
(4)
Moderate sedation only permits which authorize a qualified dentist,
licensed by the state of NH, to administer moderate sedation only to patients
13 years of age and older in a dental facility that has the required facility permit or facility hosting permit;
(5)
Moderate sedation permits with pediatric qualification which authorize a
qualified dentist, with additional training in pediatric sedation, licensed by
the state of NH, to administer moderate sedation only to patients of all ages
in a dental facility that has the required facility permit or facility hosting
permit; and
(6)
Pediatric minimal sedation permits which authorize a dentist, licensed
by the state of NH, to administer minimal sedation to patients under 13 years
of age in a dental facility.
(b) A facility described in (a)(1) or (2) above
shall be permitted to host a qualified provider and shall not host a provider
to administer anesthesia at a level higher than the permit the facility holds.
Source. #14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.04 Qualifications for Permitting. Applicants shall qualify for the type of
permit being applied for as follows:
(a) For a facility permit the qualified dentist
of the facility shall:
(1) Hold
a NH license to practice pursuant to RSA 317-A;
(2) Hold
a general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation permit, a moderate
sedation only permit, or a moderate sedation permit with pediatric
qualification issued by the OPLC; and
(3) Have
successfully completed an on-site facility inspection performed by a qualified
consultant contracted by the OPLC;
(b) For a facility hosting permit the hosting
dentist of the facility shall:
(1) Hold
a NH license to practice pursuant to RSA 317-A; and
(2) Have
successfully completed an on-site facility inspection performed by a qualified
consultant contracted by the OPLC;
(c) For a permit to administer general
anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation the applicant shall:
(1) Hold
a NH license to practice dentistry pursuant to RSA 317-A;
(2) Have
completed one of the following:
a.
Advanced training in anesthesiology and related academic subjects beyond
the undergraduate dental school level in a training program as described in
Part III C. of the American Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of
Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists”, revised 2016, as specified in
Appendix II; or
b. An
advanced dental education program in either dental anesthesiology or oral and
maxillofacial surgery as described in the Commission on Dental Accreditation
(CODA) requirements for each advanced program;
(3) Hold
a current Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) and Pediatric Advanced
Life Support (PALS) certification; and
(4) Have
successfully completed a simulated emergency management evaluation performed by
a qualified consultant contracted by the OPLC;
(d) For a permit to administer moderate sedation
only, the applicant shall:
(1) Hold
a NH license to practice dentistry pursuant to RSA 317-A;
(2) Meet
the requirements as described in Part III B. of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists” revised
2016, as specified in Appendix II;
(3) Hold
a current ACLS certification; and
(4) Have
successfully completed a simulated emergency management evaluation performed by
a qualified consultant contracted by the OPLC;
(e) For a permit to administer moderate sedation
with pediatric qualification the applicant shall:
(1) Meet
the requirements set forth in (d) above, except for (d)(3);
(2) Hold
a current ACLS certification, PALS certification, or both consistent with the
age demographic of the patients being treated; and
(3) Have
completed the educational objectives as described in Part V of the American
Dental Association “Guidelines for Teaching Pediatric Pain Control and Sedation
to Dentists and Dental Students” approved 2021, as specified in Appendix II; or
(f) For a permit to administer pediatric minimal
sedation, the applicant shall:
(1) Hold
a NH license to practice dentistry pursuant to RSA 317-A;
(2) Meet
the requirements as described in Part III A. of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists”,
revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II; and
(3) Have
completed the educational objectives for inhalation and enteral minimal
sedation training as described in Part IV of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for Teaching Pediatric Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and
Dental Students” approved 2021, including training in airway management and
patient rescue from moderate sedation.
Source. #14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.05 Applications and Permit
Procedures.
(a) Applications for permits described in Den
304.03 shall be processed in accordance with Plc 304.06 through Plc 304.10.
(b) Applicants shall submit documents and fees as
described below for the type of permit being applied for:
(1) For
a facility permit the applicant shall:
a.
Complete and submit an application required by
Den 304.05(c)(1);
b. Pay
the applicable fees required by Plc 1002.11; and
c. Have
successfully completed the on-site facility inspection performed by a qualified
consultant, as defined in Den 304.01(m), and required by Den 304.04(a)(3);
(2) For
a facility hosting permit, the applicant shall:
a.
Complete and submit the application required by Den 304.05(c)(1);
b. Pay
the applicable fees required by Plc 1002.11; and
c. Have
successfully completed the on-site facility evaluation performed by a qualified
consultant, as defined in Den 304.01(m), and required by Den 304.04(b)(2);
(3) For a general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation
permit, the applicant shall:
a.
Complete and submit the application required by Den 304.05(c)(2);
b. Pay
the applicable fees required by Plc 1002.11;
c.
Submit one of the following:
1.
Evidence of completion of an advanced training in anesthesiology and
related academic subjects beyond the undergraduate dental school level in a
training program as described in Part III C. of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists”,
revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II; or
2.
Evidence of completion of an advanced dental education program in either
dental anesthesiology or oral and maxillofacial surgery as described in the
CODA requirements for each advanced program;
d.
Submit proof of current ACLS and PALS certification; and
e. Have
successfully completed the simulated emergency management evaluation performed
by a qualified consultant, as defined in Den 304.01(m), and required by Den
304.04(c)(4);
(4) For
a moderate sedation only permit, the applicant shall:
a.
Complete and submit an application required by
Den 304.05(c)(2);
b. Pay
the applicable fees required by Plc 1002.11;
c.
Submit evidence of meeting the requirements as described in Part III B.
of the American Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and
General Anesthesia by Dentists” revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II;
d.
Submit proof of current ACLS certification; and
e. Have
successfully completed the simulated emergency management evaluation performed
by a qualified consultant, as defined in Den 304.01(m), and required by Den
304.04(d)(4);
(5) For
a moderate sedation with pediatric qualification permit, the applicant shall:
a.
Complete and submit an application required by
Den 304.05(c)(2);
b. Pay
the applicable fees as required by Plc 1002.11;
c.
Submit evidence of meeting the requirements as described in Part III B.
of the American Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and
General Anesthesia by Dentists” revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II;
d.
Submit proof of current ACLS certification, PALS certification, or both
consistent with the age demographic of the patients being treated;
e. Have
successfully completed the simulated emergency management evaluation performed
by a qualified consultant, as defined in Den 304.01(m), and required by Den
304.04(e)(1); and
f.
Submit to the OPLC a letter of verification, certificate of completion,
or official transcript demonstrating successful completion of the educational
objectives as described in Part V of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for Teaching Pediatric Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and
Dental Students” approved 2021, as specified in Appendix II; or
(6) For
a pediatric minimal sedation permit, the applicant shall:
a.
Complete and submit an application required by
Den 304.05(c)(2);
b. Pay
the applicable fees as required by Plc 1002.11;
c.
Submit evidence of meeting the requirements as described in Part III A.
of the American Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and
General Anesthesia by Dentists”, revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II; and
d.
Submit to the OPLC a letter of verification, certificate of completion,
or official transcript demonstrating successful completion of the educational
objectives for inhalation and enteral minimal sedation training as described in
Part IV of the American Dental Association “Guidelines for Teaching Pediatric
Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students” approved 2021,
including training in airway management and patient rescue from moderate
sedation.
(c) Applications for permits shall include:
(1) The
“Application for Facility or Facility Hosting Permit” requiring the following
information:
a. Check which of the following is being applied
for:
1. Facility permit; or
2. Facility hosting permit;
b. Dental practice name;
c. Hosting dentist’s or qualified dentist’s full
legal name;
d. List the name(s) of all qualified providers
administering general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation at the
facility including their NH license type(s) and number(s);
e. Facility physical address;
f. Facility mailing address;
g. Facility primary e-mail address;
h. Facility phone number;
i. Answer yes or no to the
question “Is either general anesthesia, deep sedation,
or moderate sedation administered at this facility?”; and
j. Answer yes or no to the question “Is moderate sedation only administered at this facility?”;
(2) The “Application
for Permit to Administer General Anesthesia,
Deep Sedation, and Moderate Sedation, Moderate Sedation Only, Moderate Sedation
with Pediatric Qualification, or Pediatric Minimal Sedation” requiring the
following information:
a. Check the type of permit being applied for
from the following list:
1. General anesthesia, deep sedation, and
moderate sedation;
2. Moderate sedation;
3. Moderate sedation with pediatric
qualification; or
4. Pediatric minimal sedation;
b. Name of applicant;
c. Applicant’s license type;
d. Applicant’s license
number;
e. Applicant’s home mailing address;
f. Applicant’s primary e-mail address:
g. Applicant’s home or cell phone number;
h. The following information for each facility
where the dentist intends to provide services;
1. Facility name;
2. Facility’s physical address;
3. Facility’s permit type, if applicable;
4. Facility’s permit number, if applicable; and
5. If facility application has been submitted to
obtain a permit, the date of submission;
i. If applying for a general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation
permit complete the following:
1. Check one of the following:
(i) “I am applying for this permit based on
completion of advanced training in
anesthesiology and related academic subjects beyond the undergraduate dental
school level in a training program as described in Part III C. of the American
Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by
Dentists”, revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II”; or
(ii) “I am applying for this permit based on
completion of an advanced dental
education program in either dental anesthesiology or oral and maxillofacial
surgery as described in the CODA requirements for each advanced program”;
j. Answer yes or no to the following
certificate(s) held by the applicant and if yes, provide the expiration date:
1. Basic life support for healthcare providers
(BLS-HCP);
2. Advanced cardiovascular life support (ACLS);
and
3. Pediatric advanced life support (PALS);
k. List each clinical
staff member(s) involved in patient care and include the following for
each:
1. Name and job title;
2. Whether the individual has completed BLS-HCP;
3. Date BLS-HCP initial certification received or date renewed and date of expiration;
4. Whether the individual has completed ACLS;
5. Date ACLS initial certification received or date renewed and date of expiration;
6. Whether the individual has completed PALS;
and
7. Date PALS initial certification received or date renewed and date of expiration;
l. If applying for a moderate sedation only
permit or a moderate sedation permit with pediatric qualification, complete the
following:
1. Answer yes or no to the question “I am
applying for this permit based on evidence of meeting the requirements as
described in Part III B. of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists” revised
2016, as specified in Appendix II”; and
2.
Answer yes or no to the question “I have successfully completed the
educational objectives as described in Part V of the American Dental
Association “Guidelines for Teaching Pediatric Pain Control and Sedation to
Dentists and Dental Students” approved 2021, as specified in Appendix II; and
m. If applying for a pediatric minimal sedation
permit, complete the following:
1. Answer yes or no to the question “I am applying for this permit based on evidence of meeting
the requirements as described in Part III A. of the American Dental Association
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists”,
revised 2016, as specified in Appendix II; and
(3) Each applicant shall sign and date the
application described in (1) or (2) above below the following attestation:
“I am not under investigation by any professional
licensing board and my credentials have not
been suspended or revoked by any professional licensing board. The information and documentation provided
are true, complete, and not misleading to the best of my knowledge and belief,
I understand that providing false or misleading information constitutes grounds
for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license, and that knowingly
providing false material information constitutes a misdemeanor under RSA 641:3
relative to falsification in official matters.”
Source.
#14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.06 Administration of General
Anesthesia or Sedation Exclusively by a Separate Dedicated Qualified
Provider. Dentists shall not be
obligated to obtain a sedation or anesthesia permit pursuant to this part if
general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation is being administered
exclusively by a separate dedicated qualified provider, so long as the hosting
dentist obtains an anesthesia facility permit or facility hosting permit as
described in Den 304.03.
Source. #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by #14246, eff
8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35 (formerly Den 304.02)
Den
304.07 Facility or Facility Hosting
Requirements.
(a) Each
facility applying for a facility or a facility hosting permit shall have
equipment and supplies on-site and proper staffing as follows:
(1) Oxygen delivery systems as follows:
a. Portable oxygen tank;
b. Bag valve mask such as ambu bag with
connector tubing able to be connected to oxygen tank; and
c. Nasal cannula or oxygen mask with connector
tubing able to be connected to oxygen tank;
(2) Suction equipment as follows:
a. Suction unit or vacuum system connected to
all operatories and recovery rooms; and
b. Yankauer suction tip with connector tubing
able to be connected to suction unit or vacuum system;
(3) Wheelchair;
(4) Vital signs monitoring equipment in all
operatories where moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia is
administered and recovery rooms as follows:
a. Continuous pulse oximeter; and
b. Blood pressure monitor with cuffs of various
sizes for adult patients, as well as for pediatric patients if patients under
age 13 years are treated at the facility;
(5) Defibrillator equipment as follows:
a. Manual or automated external defibrillator
(AED);
b. Unexpired batteries for defibrillator, if the
defibrillator is battery powered;
c. Log maintained documenting monthly
inspections for proper defibrillator functioning; and
d. Unexpired adult defibrillator pads that
connect to the facility’s defibrillator equipment, as well as unexpired
pediatric defibrillator pads that connect to the facility’s defibrillator
equipment if patients under age 8 years are treated at the facility;
(6) Auxiliary light source capable of use during
power failure, such as battery powered headlight, flashlight, or generator;
(7) Rigid CPR board; and
(8) Staffing for procedures under moderate
sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia, in addition to the qualified
provider, shall be as follows:
a. The operating dentist, if separate from the
qualified provider, maintains a current PALS certification if patients under
the age of 13 years are treated at the facility;
b. A dental assistant with current BLS
certification on staff at the time of procedure;
c. Additional personnel available when needed
for calling emergency 911; and
d. Staffing on site, as described in Den 304.08,
appropriate for the procedure being performed.
(b)
In addition to the requirements specified in Den 304.07(a), at the time
that a qualified provider is administering moderate sedation, deep sedation, or
general anesthesia, the facility shall have the following additional equipment
and supplies on-site:
(1) Oxygen and gas delivery systems as follows:
a. Oxygen fail-safe valve on anesthesia machine
or nitrous oxide flowmeter if administered; and
b. Size-dissimilar fittings, varied hose sizes,
and colored tubing and hoses for oxygen, nitrous oxide, and medical air if
used;
(2) Suction systems as follows:
a. Pulmonary suction catheter with connector
tubing able to be connected to suction unit or vacuum system; and
b. Portable suction device able to be used
during power failure;
(3) Airway devices as follows:
a. Endotracheal tubes (ETTs) of various sizes
with stylets for adult patients, as well as for pediatric patients if patients
under age 13 years are treated at the facility;
b. Syringe for ETT cuff inflation;
c. Ambu bag and connector tubing to enable ETT
to be connected to oxygen tank and deliver positive pressure;
d. If deep sedation or general anesthesia is
provided at the facility, video laryngoscope with blades of various sizes for
adult patients, as well as for pediatric patients if patients under age 13
years are treated at the facility;
e. Extra batteries for laryngoscope;
f. Extra bulbs for laryngoscope, if applicable;
g. Magill forceps;
h. Tongue grasping forceps;
i. Oral airways of various sizes for adult
patients, as well as for pediatric patients if patients under age 13 years are
treated at facility;
j. Nasopharyngeal airways of various sizes for
adult patients, as well as for pediatric patients if patients under age 13
years are treated at facility:
k. Supraglottic airways, such as Laryngeal Mask
Airways or King Airways, of various sizes for adult patients, as well as for
pediatric patients if patients under age 13 years are treated at facility; and
l. If deep sedation or general anesthesia is
provided at the facility, emergency cricothyrotomy kit with connector tubing
able to be connected to bag valve mask and oxygen tank;
(4) Vital signs monitoring equipment in all
operatories where moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia is
administered also with:
a. Continuous electrocardiogram;
b. Capnography; and
c. Stethoscope; and
(5) Accessory supplies and emergency medications
as follows:
a. Disposable angiocatheters, tourniquets, and
tape for IV catheter placement;
b. IV tubing and IV fluids;
c. Disposable needles and syringes for
medication draw up and delivery;
d. Epinephrine 1:10,000 for cardiac arrest;
e. Epinephrine 1:1,000 for allergic reaction;
f. Direct or indirect acting pressor for
hypotension;
g. Antiarrhythmic for cardiac arrest;
h. Adenosine for tachycardia;
i. Naloxone for opioid reversal;
j. Flumazenil for benzodiazepine reversal;
k. Antihypertensive for acute hypertension;
l. Steroid injection for allergic reaction;
m. Dextrose injection for hypoglycemic reversal;
n. Atropine for bradycardia;
o. Diphenhydramine injection for allergic
reaction;
p. Neuromuscular blocker with rapid onset for
laryngospasm;
q. Albuterol inhaler for bronchospasm;
r. Benzodiazepine injection for seizure;
s. Immediate-release non-enteric coated aspirin
for acute coronary syndrome; and
t. Sublingual nitroglycerin for acute coronary
syndrome.
(c)
In addition to the requirements specified in Den 304.07(b), at the time
that a qualified provider is administering inhaled volatile anesthetics, or
succinylcholine if administered on a routine basis, the facility shall have the
following additional equipment and supplies on-site:
(1) Oxygen and gas delivery system also with
anesthetic gas analyzer if inhaled volatile anesthetics are used;
(2) Dantrolene injection for malignant
hyperthermia; and
(3) Sterile water for dantrolene diluent;
Source.
#14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.08 Administering General
Anesthesia, Deep Sedation, or Moderate Sedation.
(a) Qualified dentist or operating dentist shall
ensure that administered general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate
sedation follows the clinical guidelines set forth in Part IV B. or C., as
appropriate, of the American Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of
Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists” revised 2016, as specified in
Appendix II or in the American Academy of
Pediatrics “Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients
Before, During, and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures”
revised 2019, as specified in Appendix II, including for patient history, pre-operative
evaluation, and preparation, specific to the age demographic of the patient
being treated.
(b) For administration of general anesthesia,
deep sedation, or moderate sedation, an intravenous catheter shall be in place
prior to administration or the equipment necessary to establish either
intravascular or intraosseous access shall be immediately available until the
patient meets discharge status.
(c) For administration of moderate sedation, with
or without inhalation sedation, agents shall be limited to a single dose, as
defined in Den 304.01(r), of one or more drugs, or multiple doses of a single
drug, using manufacturer guidelines as found in the FDA “Online Label
Repository” found at labels.fda.gov.
(d) A dentist shall not delegate to a dental
assistant or hygienist any task that is outside of their scopes of practice, as
defined in Den 404, Den 405, and Den 501.01(b), such as placement of an
intravenous catheter, drawing up medications, or administering
medications. PALS certification shall
not supersede the duty restrictions outlined in Den 404, Den 405, and Den
501.01(b).
(e) When treating patients under 13 years of age
by administering general anesthesia or deep sedation, the qualified dentist or
operating dentist shall:
(1) Obtain informed consent that
includes the statement that the procedure may be alternatively performed in a
hospital setting with additional anesthesia personnel; and
(2) Ensure that in addition to
the dentist performing the procedure there shall be a separate dedicated
anesthesia qualified provider present to monitor the procedure and recovery
from anesthesia.
(f) Qualified dentists who are board eligible or board certified by
either the American Dental Board of Anesthesiology (ADBA) or the American Board
of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (ABOMS) may apply to the board for exemption
from the requirement for a separate dedicated anesthesia provider when treating
patients under 13 years of age with administration of general anesthesia or
deep sedation pursuant to RSA 317-A:12, XII-a(h)(1), and shall:
(1) Have completed an advanced airway course with
hands-on training within the previous 6 years;
(2) When the qualified dentist is administering
general anesthesia or deep sedation without a separate dedicated anesthesia
provider present:
a. Document a pre-operative physical examination
of the patient’s airway consistent with the “2022 American Society of
Anesthesiologists (ASA) Practice Guidelines for Management of the Difficult
Airway”, as specified in Appendix II; and
b. Ensure that a designated staff member
currently certified in PALS or who has completed 36 hours of didactic
instruction taught by an organization listed under Den 406.06(a)(1) in the
underlying physiology and interpretation of monitoring used for patients under
deep sedation and general anesthesia and principles of office-based anesthesia
and anesthesia equipment is present during the procedure with the sole
responsibility to constantly observe the patient’s vital signs, airway patency,
and adequacy of ventilation.
(3) Have completed the “Application for Exemption
from the Requirement for a Separate Dedicated Anesthesia Provider When Treating
Patients Under 13 Years of Age With General Anesthesia or Deep Sedation” by
providing the following information:
a.
Applicant’s full legal name;
b.
Applicant’s NH dental license number;
c.
Applicant’s primary facility’s name;
d.
Primary facility’s physical address;
e.
Primary facility’s phone number;
f.
Applicant’s e-mail address;
g.
Answer yes or no to “I have completed an
advanced airway course with hands-on training, within the previous 6 years.”;
h. Answer yes or no to “Do you intend to treat patients under 13 years
of age with administration of general anesthesia or deep sedation without a
separate dedicated anesthesia provider?”;
i. Answer yes or no to “Do
you intend to treat patients 8 years of age or under with the administration of
general anesthesia or deep sedation without a separate dedicated anesthesia
provider?”; and
j. Answer yes or no to “Are you board eligible or board certified by
either the American Dental Board of Anesthesiology (ADBA) or the American Board
of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (ABOMS)?”;
(4) Each applicant for exemption shall sign and
date the application below the following attestation:
“I am not under investigation
by any professional licensing board and my credentials
have not been suspended or revoked by any professional licensing board. The information and documentation provided
are true, complete, and not misleading to the best of my knowledge and belief,
I understand that providing false or misleading information constitutes grounds
for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license, and that knowingly
providing false material information constitutes a misdemeanor under RSA 641:3
relative to falsification in official matters.”;
(5) When submitting the application described in (3) above, provide a copy of the document
showing completion of an advanced airway course with hands-on training within the previous 6
years;
(6) When submitting the application described in
(3) above and answering “yes” to the question “Do you intend to treat patients
8 years of age or under with the administration of general anesthesia or deep
sedation without a separate dedicated anesthesia provider?” provide the
following:
a. Evidence of successful completion of a CODA
accredited dental anesthesiology residency program within the previous 2 years
including documentation of supervision of your personal administration of deep
sedation or general anesthesia to at least 20 patients who are 8 years of age
or younger that occurred during the training;
b. Evidence of successful completion of a CODA
accredited oral and maxillofacial surgery residency program within the previous
2 years with documentation of supervision of your personal administration of
deep sedation or general anesthesia to at least 20 patients who are 8 years of
age or younger that occurred during the training; or
c. For dentists who currently possess a permit
for use of general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation
documentation that you personally administered deep sedation or general
anesthesia to at least 20 patients 8 years of age or younger during the
previous 2 years; and
(7) Applicants who lack the required 20 pediatric
cases within the previous 2 years in a manner described in (6) shall, if they
wish to seek the exemption:
a. Administer deep sedation or general
anesthesia to patients 8 years of age or under, while not performing the
surgical procedure, under the direct supervision of a dentist who holds a
general anesthesia, deep sedation, and moderate sedation permit and has been
granted the exemption described in Den 304.08(f); and
b. Complete the requirement documenting
administration of deep sedation or general anesthesia under direct supervision
to at least 20 patients under 8 years of age over the span of no more than 2
years.
(g) When administering
general anesthesia or deep sedation to patients 8 years of age or younger,
without a separate dedicated anesthesia provider present, the qualified dentist
shall:
(1)
Possess an exemption from the requirement for a separate dedicated
anesthesia provider as required by Den 304.08(f) and have met the requirements
in Den 304.08(f)(6)a., (6)b., (6)c., or (7); or
(2) If
general anesthesia or deep sedation was administered on an emergency basis the
dentist shall complete and submit to the OPLC an “Emergency Exemption From the
Requirement for a Separate Dedicated Anesthesia Provider Form” within 15
working days following the treatment of the patient. The dentist shall provide the following
information:
a. The
dentist’s full legal name;
b. The
dentist’s NH dental license number;
c. The
name of the facility where general anesthesia or deep sedation was
administered;
d. The
facility’s physical address;
e. The
facility’s phone number;
f. The
dentist’s e-mail address;
g. A
description of the dental procedure(s);
h. A description of the pre-operative physical condition of
the patient;
i. A list of all personnel who assisted with the emergency
dental procedure;
j. A description of drug(s) and dosage(s) administered;
k. A description of the techniques used in administering the
drug(s);
l. A description of any adverse occurrence(s),
including but not limited to:
1. Patient’s signs and symptoms;
2. Treatment instituted in response to adverse
occurrence(s); and
3. Patient’s response to the treatment(s);
m. The patient’s condition on termination of any
procedure(s) undertaken; and
n. The signature of the dentist and date the
dentist signed the form.
(h)
The report described in (g) above shall not identify the patient for
whom the report is being submitted.
Source. #14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.09 Facility or Facility Hosting
Documentation Requirements.
(a) Each facility holding a facility or facility
hosting permit shall maintain the following documentation:
(1) Written anesthesia consent;
(2) Anesthesia record including the following:
a. Date of procedure;
b. Nothing by mouth (NPO) status;
c. Availability of responsible adult escort;
d. Vital signs pursuant to the incorporated
requirements in Den 304.08(a), including time-oriented monitoring of
oxygenation, ventilation, and circulation; and
e. Drugs and doses administered pursuant to the
incorporated requirements in Den 304.08(a) listing administration times;
(3) Anesthetic emergency record including the
following:
a. Date;
b. Diagnosis of critical event
such as laryngospasm or cardiac arrest;
c. Medical history;
d. Time of onset;
e. Vital signs at time of onset and continuous
monitoring;
f. Administered drugs;
g. Drug doses;
h. Route and time of administration;
i. When cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) began and ended;
j. Time of transfer and by whom; and
k. Vital signs at transfer;
(4) Emergency patient transfer form that is site
specific for each location;
(5) Scripted scenario for emergency 911 contact;
(6) Plan describing the role and responsibility
for each team member in an emergency; and
(7) Post-anesthesia instructions.
(b)
At a dental facility hosting a qualified provider in the manner
described in Den 304.01(b), the facility shall, in addition to the requirements
of Den 304.09(a) above, have:
(1) A dated and signed attestation described in
Den 403.01(e) from the qualified provider;
(2) An updated attestation required by Den
403.01(c) and (d) above from the provider each biennium thereafter;
(3) Documentation that the attestations required
by (1) and (2) above have been submitted to the OPLC; and
(4) If the relationship between the dental
facility, hosting a qualified provider in the manner described in Den
304.01(b), and the qualified provider is terminated, documentation that the
hosting facility has notified the OPLC of that termination in accordance with
Den 403.01(g).
Source. #14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.10 Facility or Facility Hosting
Inspections.
(a)
Each facility holding a facility or facility hosting permit shall have
completed a facility inspection by a qualified consultant before the
administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation of
any type. The initial inspection shall
be conducted in accordance with Plc 404.
(b)
Each facility holding a facility or facility hosting permit shall be
inspected every 3rd
biennial license renewal, as outlined in RSA 310:6, II, after the initial
inspection. The renewal inspection shall
be conducted in accordance with Plc 405.
Source.
#14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.11 Minimal Sedation.
(a) Dentists administering minimal sedation
shall:
(1)
Follow the clinical guidelines set forth in Part IV A. of the American
Dental Association “Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia
by Dentists” revised 2016 or in the American Academy of Pediatrics “Guidelines
for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients Before, During and After
Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures” revised 2019, as specified
in Appendix II including having a properly staffed and equipped facility and
reversal agents available for any enteral drugs administered, specific to the
age demographic of the patient being treated; and
(2)
Hold a current pediatric minimal sedation permit when treating patients
under 13 years of age.
(b) The following routes of administration shall
apply to the use of minimal sedation:
(1)
Inhalation using nitrous oxide;
(2)
A single dose, as
defined in Den 304.01(r), of one enteral drug establishing a margin of safety
wide enough to render unintended loss of consciousness unlikely, using
manufacturer guidelines as found in the FDA “Online Label Repository” found at
labels.fda.gov; or
(3)
If the patient is 13 years of age or older a combination
inhalation-enteral, as above in (1) and (2).
(c)
A minimum of one staff member trained in the monitoring and
resuscitation of pediatric patient, in addition to the
dentist administering minimal sedation, shall be present for administration of
minimal sedation to patients under 13 years of age, pursuant to RSA 317-A:12,
XII-c(f).
Source.
#12428, eff 12-6-17; amd by #12549, eff 6-15-18; ss by #14246, eff 8-3-25,
EXPIRES: 8-3-35 (formerly Den 304.06)
Den 304.12 Initial Inspections and Evaluations.
(a)
Each dental facility holding either a facility permit or a facility
hosting permit authorizing the administration of general anesthesia, deep
sedation, or moderate sedation on their premises shall be inspected before the
initial permit is issued.
(b)
Each dentist applying for an initial permit to administer general
anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation, moderate sedation only, or
moderate sedation with pediatric qualification shall:
(1) Pass a simulated emergency management
evaluation of their emergency procedures through scenario
based drills with a qualified consultant contracted by the OPLC;
(2) Be evaluated upon completion of no less than
5 scenario based drills; and
(3) Pass a simulated emergency management
evaluation assessing the following:
a. The dentist’s response to the scenario
presented; and
b. The staff assignment(s) and role(s) during
the simulated emergency management evaluation;
(c)
The facility or hosting facility issued a permit to administer general
anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation, moderate sedation only, or
moderate sedation with pediatric qualification shall be inspected by a
qualified consultant contracted by the OPLC to ensure all requirements
described in Den 304.07 are available on site and to verify documentation has
been completed consistent with the requirements described in Den 304.09.
Source.
#14246, eff 8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35
Den
304.13 Morbidity and Mortality
Reports.
(a) Any dentist licensed pursuant to this chapter
shall report to the board the occurrence of any adverse health care events
resulting in death, brain damage, or hospitalization, occurring in the
dentist's office or facility while utilizing general anesthesia, deep sedation,
moderate sedation, or minimal sedation.
(b) The morbidity and mortality report shall be
submitted to the board through the OPLC as soon as is reasonably
and practically possible, but no later than 15 working days after discovery of
the event.
(c) The morbidity and mortality report shall
include a description of:
(1)
Dental procedure(s);
(2)
Pre-operative physical condition of the patient;
(3)
Drug(s) and dosage(s) administered;
(4)
Techniques used in administering the drug(s);
(5)
Any adverse occurrence, including:
a.
Patient’s signs and symptoms;
b.
Treatment instituted in response to adverse occurrences; and
c.
Patient’s response to the treatment; and
(6)
Patient’s condition on termination of any procedures undertaken.
(d)
The report described in (c) above shall not identify any of the dental
professionals, facility employees, or patients involved.
(e)
After
receiving a report of an adverse health care event, the board shall conduct a
root cause analysis of the event utilizing the OPLC enforcement division.
(f) The board shall issue to the dentist the root
cause analysis report.
(g)
Following
the root cause analysis, the dentist shall provide a corrective action plan to
implement the findings of the analysis to the board and if for any reason the
facility did not take corrective action, the plan shall contain the reasons for
not taking the corrective action within 60 days of the event.
(h)
If the dentist conducted a root cause analysis at the time of the event
and implemented a corrective action plan, then the dentist shall report the
findings of the analysis and the corrective action taken with the report
described in (c) above.
(i) All proceedings related to the root cause analysis and
implementation of a corrective action plan shall be considered privileged and
not subject to discovery or subpoena.
All information and data made available to the board and the OPLC under
this section shall be confidential and shall be held in accordance with RSA
91-A.
Source. #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by #14246, eff
8-3-25, EXPIRES: 8-3-35 (formerly Den 304.07)
CHAPTER
Den 400 DENTAL ASSISTANTS AND HYGIENISTS DUTIES
REVISION
NOTE:
The Governor declared a State of
Emergency in Executive Order 2020-04, which was effective 3-13-20. The declaration and subsequent Emergency
Orders issued pursuant to Executive Order 2020-04, which may have affected
various rules and statutes governing licensees under
Chapter Den 400. The State of Emergency
terminated at midnight on 6-11-21, and rules or statutes which had been amended
during the State of Emergency were restored.
To determine what rules in Den 400 were applicable during the State of
Emergency, the user should check not only the source notes of the rules but
also the Emergency Orders in effect at the time in question.
Document #13341, effective 2-8-22,
amended paragraph (f) in Den 403.07 titled “Categories of Credit”
as an emergency rule. Document #13366,
effective 4-19-22, subsequently readopted with amendment Den 403.07 as a
regular rule before the emergency rule would have expired on 8-7-22 pursuant to
RSA 541-A:18, V.
PART Den 401 ASSISTANTS
Den 401.01 Assistants' Duties.
(a)
A dental assistant shall perform the following duties under general
supervision, as defined in Den 101.11 and arranged by degree of supervision in
Den 302.02:
(1) Sterilize instruments;
(2) Organize and arrange instruments on bracket
tables;
(3) Seat patient, place protective materials or
garments including the lubrication of such patient's lips;
(4) Reorganize instruments and equipment after
the patient has departed;
(5) Process dental radiographs;
(6) Function as a dental laboratory technician;
(7) Perform tests on saliva;
(8) Train or instruct groups or individual
patients in techniques of oral hygiene and mouth care; and
(9) Take the blood pressure of a patient.
(b)
A dental assistant shall perform the following duties under direct
supervision, as defined in Den 101.10 and arranged by degree of supervision in
Den 302.02:
(1) Retract a patient's cheek, tongue or other
oral tissues during a dental operation;
(2) Assist with the placement or removal of a
rubber dam and accessories used for its placement and retention, as directed by
an operating dentist during the course of a dental
operation;
(3) Remove such debris as is normally created or
accumulated during the course of treatment being
rendered by a licensed dentist by the use of vacuum
devices, compressed air, mouth washes and water; and
(4) Place cotton rolls and topical anesthesia
prior to delivery of local anesthesia by a dentist or dental hygienist.
(c)
Before qualifying to perform the duties delineated in Den 401.01 (d),
any dental assistant, other than a certified dental assistant or graduate
dental assistant, shall qualify in infection control in the dental office as
stated in Den 302.06(b).
(d)
A dental assistant shall perform the following duties pursuant to the
definition of "Public Health Supervision" as set forth in Den 302.02
(d)(2) to assist a CPHDH:
(1) Process and sterilize instruments and perform
infection control;
(2) Organize and arrange instruments on bracket
tables;
(3) Seat patient, place protective materials or
garments including the lubrication of such patient's lips;
(4) Reorganize instruments and equipment after
the patient has departed the healthcare facility;
(5) Process dental radiographs;
(6) Train or instruct groups or individual
patients in techniques of oral hygiene
and mouth care;
(7) Retract a patient's cheek, tongue or other
oral tissues during a dental hygiene and remove such
debris as is normally created or accumulated during the
course of treatment being rendered by a CPHDH by the
use of vacuum devices, compressed air, mouthwashes and water; and
(8) Assist with the placement or removal of a
rubber dam and accessories used for its placement and retention, as directed by
an operating CPHDH during the course of a dental
hygiene operation.
(e)
If qualified pursuant to Den 302.06, a dental assistant shall be
eligible to:
(1) Take dental and medical histories;
(2) Apply topical fluoride after prophylaxis by a
licensed professional;
(3) Apply non-prescription topical anesthesia;
(4) Apply non-prescription desensitizing agents
to the cementum and dentin;
(5) Take and record blood pressure;
(6) Select impression trays, seat, hold, remove,
and pour impressions for study models, single arch athletic mouthguards, and
custom fluoride trays;
(7) Insert athletic mouthguards;
(8) Perform dental radiography;
(9) Pit and fissure sealants;
(10) Perform coronal polishing; and
(11) Conduct preliminary oral inspection.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; amd by #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff
4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd
by #7970, eff 10-10-03; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; ss
by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #8963, eff 8-16-07; ss
by #10794, eff 3-7-15; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17
Den 401.02 Certified Dental Assistants' and Graduate
Dental Assistants' Duties. Certified
dental assistants as defined in Den 101.05 and graduate dental assistants as
defined in Den 101.13 may, in addition to the duties of assistants, perform the
following duties under direct supervision as defined in Den 101.11 and arranged
by degree of supervision in Den 302.02:
(a)
Take dental and medical histories;
(b)
Place and remove rubber dams;
(c)
Place and remove matrices;
(d)
Apply topical fluoride after prophylaxis by a licensed professional;
(e)
Apply non-prescription topical anesthesia;
(f)
Apply non-prescription desensitizing agents to the cementum and dentin;
(g)
Take and record blood pressure;
(h)
Select impression trays, seat, hold, remove and pour impressions for
study models, single arch athletic mouth guards, custom fluoride trays and
whitening trays;
(i) Insert athletic mouthguards;
(j)
Perform pulpal vitality testing procedures;
(k)
Remove sutures and dressings; and
(l)
After at least 400 hours of work experience in clinical dental
assisting:
(1) Make final impressions;
(2) Place periodontal dressings;
(3) Place amalgam prior to condensing by a
dentist;
(4) Place cavity liners and bases;
(5) Place and remove gingival
retraction cord;
(6) Place and remove temporary restorations, not
to include temporary crowns and bridges unless qualified pursuant to Den
302.06, and not to include the use of intraoral rotary instruments;
(7) Cement bands and bond brackets, not to
include the use of rotary instruments to remove excess cement or bonding
material;
(8) Make bite registrations when maximum
intercuspation can be achieved; and
(9) Place and remove dry socket medications.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd
by #8100, eff 6-11-04; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; ss
by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #9256, eff 9-10-08; amd by #9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd
by #9778, eff 9-3-10; ss by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17
(a)
Dental radiography;
(b)
Pit and fissure sealants;
(c)
Orthodontic duties;
(d)
Fabrication of provisional crown and bridge restorations;
(e)
Coronal polishing;
(f) Preliminary oral inspection;
(g) Monitor nitrous oxide administration; and
(h)
In-office tooth whitening.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #4105, eff 8-1-86; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New.
#6909, eff 12-9-98; amd by #7818, eff 1-9-03; amd by #8100, eff 6-11-04; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by
#9973, eff 8-9-11; ss by #13021, eff 4-9-20
Den 402.01 Hygienists'
Duties: A dental hygienist shall
perform the following duties:
(a) Under general supervision, as defined in Den
101.12:
(1) Perform all
the duties a dental assistant may perform under Den 401.01 and all the duties a
certified dental assistant and graduate dental assistant may perform under Den
401.02;
(2) Perform
complete oral prophylaxis as appropriate, including the removal of subgingival
biofilm, its by-products, and biofilm retentive calculus deposits by
debridement, scaling, and root planing;
(3) Collect and
assess medical and dental histories, including documentation of existing and
relevant systemic conditions;
(4) Perform
extraoral or intraoral assessment, including oral cancer screening, and
document all findings;
(5) Assess the
hard tissue and document all findings of existing conditions and deviations
from normal;
(6) Assess
periodontal structures and conditions and document all findings;
(7) Assess
occlusion and document all findings;
(8) Make a
complete and accurate recording of all assessment findings regarding dental
hygiene services relevant to patient care;
(9) Perform
dental radiography;
(10) Perform comprehensive
collection of patient data to identify the physical and oral health status;
(11) Assess and
analyze data collected and determine the patient’s dental hygiene treatment
needs that a dental hygienist is qualified and licensed to treat;
(12) Establish
a dental hygiene care plan that reflects the realistic
goals and treatment strategies to facilitate optimal oral health;
(13) Implement a dental hygiene care plan and evaluate
dental hygiene treatment for effectiveness;
(14) Place
prescribed periodontal antimicrobial agents;
(15) Apply
topical preventive and anesthetic agents, including silver diamine fluoride;
and
(16) The administration, prescription, and dispensing
of a fluoride supplement, topically applied fluoride, and chlorhexidine
gluconate oral rinse;
(b) Under indirect supervision as defined in Den
101.14, in-office tooth whitening;
(c) Under direct supervision as defined in Den
101.11:
(1) Remove
excess restorative material extending beyond the margins of the preparation, to
include the use of a low speed hand piece, if
necessary;
(2) Place
retraction cord;
(3) Place and
remove periodontal dressings;
(4) Place
temporary restorations, not to include temporary crowns and bridges, unless
qualified pursuant to Den 302.05;
(5) Make
cytological smears;
(6) Perform
brush biopsies;
(7) Make final
impressions;
(8) Place
amalgam prior to condensing by a dentist;
(9) Place
cavity liners and bases;
(10) Remove
temporary restorations, not to include the use of rotary instruments;
(11) Cement
bands and bond brackets;
(12) Perform
orthodontic duties, if qualified pursuant to Den 302.05;
(13) Fabricate
provisional crown and bridge restorations, if qualified pursuant to Den 302.05;
(14) Administer
local anesthesia, if qualified pursuant to Den 302.05;
(15) Monitor
nitrous oxide inhalation administration, if qualified pursuant to Den 302.05;
and
(16) Administer
nitrous oxide if qualified pursuant to Den 302.05; and
(d) Under public health supervision as defined in
Den 101.24:
(1) Collect and
assess medical and dental histories, including preliminary inspection of the
oral cavity and surrounding structures, and periodontal probing and charting;
(2) Perform complete oral prophylaxis as appropriate,
including the removal of calciferous deposits and the removal of subgingival
accretions and stains by scaling and root planing;
(3) Apply
topical fluoride, including fluoride varnish;
(4) Instruct in
oral hygiene techniques;
(5) Administer
fluoride rinse programs as follows:
a. Obtain
consent from a legally responsible adult;
b. Train
personnel in storage, dosage, safety, administration, and rinsing procedures;
and
c. Have a legally authorized physician, dentist,
advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant pursuant to RSA
318:42, II dilute concentrated fluoride solutions prior to dispensing;
(6) Place
sealants when authorized by a dentist with an active license provided that:
a. Written
informed consent shall be obtained from the patients’ legal guardian; and
b. The supervising dentist and the hygienist shall be
responsible for the sealants being indicated and correctly placed; and
(7) Make
impressions, fabricate and deliver athletic mouthguards.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #4298, eff 7-28-87; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91; amd
by #5722, eff 10-15-93; ss by #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd
by #7778, eff 10-10-02; amd by #7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #7970, eff 10-10-03; amd
by #8100, eff 6-11-04; amd by #8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #9256, eff 9-10-08; amd by
#9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd by #9633, eff 1-7-10; amd by #9778, eff 9-3-10; amd by
#9973, eff 8-9-11; amd by #10437, eff 10-8-13; ss by
#10824, eff 5-6-15; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by
#13021, eff 4-9-20
Den 402.02 Public Health Supervision Status.
(a)
In order to obtain public health supervision status, a dental hygienist
shall complete a dental hygienist application for public health supervision
status, to include the following:
(1) Applicant's name and license number;
(2) Applicant's current business and residential
addresses, telephone numbers and primary email address either business or
personal;
(3) The name of the public health supervision
program where the applicant is employed;
(4) That the applicant agrees to limit any duties
to those outlined in Den 402;
(5) That the applicant agrees to follow
appropriate infection control guidelines as recommended by the Center for
Disease Control and Prevention; and
(6) That the applicant agrees to advise
participants in the program that the services provided do not replace regular
examination by a dentist;
(b) The hygienist or supervising dentist shall
send a summary of program results to the board at the one-year anniversary of
the program's inception and each and every year after
or, if the program lasts less than a year, at the end of the program; and
(c) The form shall be signed and dated by the
applicant and the supervising dentist of the program.
Source. #10991, eff 12-9-15
Den 402.03 Program Application for Public Health
Supervision.
(a)
Each applicant for approval of a program under public health supervision
shall provide the following on the "Application for Dental Program
Approval under Public Health Supervision" form:
(1) Supervising dentist's name and license
number;
(2)
Supervising
dentist's primary business address, business telephone number and primary email
address either business or personal;
(3) Name of the program;
(4) Agency sponsoring the program;
(5) Date(s) of activity, as well as sites and
population served;
(6) A description of the dental hygiene services
to be provided; and
(7) The names and license numbers of hygientists working in the program, to be updated whenever
changes occur.
(b)
The form shall be signed and dated by the applicant and the supervising
dentist of the program.
(c)
The hygienist or supervising dentist shall send a summary of program
results to the board at the one-year anniversary of the program's inception and
each and every year after or, if the program lasts
less than a year, at the end of the program.
Source. #10991, eff 12-9-15
PART
Den 403 CONTINUING EDUCATION
Den 403.01 Purpose. The purpose of this section is to establish
the minimum continuing education requirements as provided by RSA 317-A:12, XI.
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02), EXPIRED:
4-1-98
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #10794, eff 3-7-15
Den 403.02
Definitions of Terms. The
following definitions of terms shall apply to this part:
(a)
"Certificate of CEU credit" means a document issued to a
particular licensee by a provider certifying that the licensee has
satisfactorily completed a program of continuing education;
(b)
"Clinical dental care or dental hygiene care subjects" means
those areas of study that deal with the performance of dental or dental hygiene
services for patients;
(c)
"Continuing education" means dental education designed to
maintain professional competence in the practice of dental hygiene and/or
dentistry, improve professional skills, and preserve dental standards for the
purpose of protecting the public health and welfare;
(d)
"Continuing education unit" (CEU) means one hour of attendance
at lectures, seminars and meetings, 30 minutes of attendance at clinical or
laboratory participatory courses, or 20 minutes as a presenter of an original
paper, essay, or formal lecture to a group of professionals, not including
certification in a specialty;
(e)
"Licensee" means any active or inactive licensed dental
hygienist or dentist in the State of New Hampshire; and
(f)
"Non-clinical subjects" means those areas of study related to
personal development or practice management as related to dentistry or dental
hygiene.
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02), EXPIRED:
4-1-98
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #10794, eff 3-7-15;
ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17
Den 403.03 Continuing Education Requirement.
(a) Dental hygienists with an active New
Hampshire license shall complete a minimum of 20 CEUs of continuing education
per biennium. At least 15 CEUs shall be earned in clinical dental care
subjects, including successful completion of a BLS-HCP course as specified in
Den 403.07(b). At least 2 CEUs shall be
earned in infection control in a live or online course which includes the
center for disease control infection prevention and control guidelines and
recommendations in its syllabus.
Starting April 1, 2020, at least 2 CEUs shall be earned in Medical
Emergency Training.
(b) Dentists with an active New Hampshire license
shall complete a minimum of 40 CEUs of continuing education per biennium. At
least 30 CEUs shall be earned in clinical dental care subjects, including
successful completion of a BLS-HCP course as specified in Den 403.07(b). At least 2 CEUs shall be earned in infection
control in a live or online course which includes the center for disease
control infection prevention and control guidelines and recommendations in its
syllabus. Starting April 1, 2020, at least
2 CEUs shall be earned in Medical Emergency Training.
(c) Licensees required to register with the
prescription drug monitoring program and who possess a valid drug enforcement
administration number shall provide evidence of having completed, as a
condition for renewal:
(1) Three CEUs in the area of pain management, addiction disorder, or a
combination of both pain management and addiction disorder; or
(2) An online
examination in the area of pain management, addiction
disorder, or a combination of pain management and addiction disorders.
(d) The CEUs completed during the 2 years
preceding April 1st in the year of renewal shall conform to the criteria
identified throughout these rules.
(e) One CEU shall be given for
each hour of attendance at lectures, seminars, and meetings. For each hour of
attendance at clinical or laboratory participatory courses, 2 CEUs shall be
given. Successful completion of an entire course or segment of a course shall
be required to receive continuing education credit for that course.
(f)
Each licensee shall retain all certificates and/or documents as evidence of
participation, as described in Den 403.06(d), in a continuing education program
or course for a period of 3 years from the date of the program course. It shall
be the responsibility of each course participant to assure
that verification of course participation is attained. Upon request of the
board, such documentation shall be made available to the board or its
representative for random audit and/or verification purposes.
(g) Excess CEUs earned in one biennial
registration period shall not be carried forward into the next biennial
registration period for the purpose of fulfilling that biennium’s continuing
education requirement for licensure renewal.
(h) Dental board members and hygiene committee
members shall be given 3 CEUs per full year of membership on the board or the
committee.
(i) Anesthesia and
sedation committee members shall be given 1 CEU per evaluation, with a maximum
of 3 CEUs per year.
(j) Up to 3 CEUs shall be given for courses taken
when initially obtaining a specialty.
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02); amd by #6186, eff 2-17-96; paragraphs (a)-(c), (g) &
(h) EXPIRED: 4-1-98; ss by #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd by
#7364, eff 9-19-00; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by
#8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; ss by
#10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by #13021, eff 4-9-20
Den 403.04 Renewal
and Monitoring.
(a) Biennially, each active licensee shall submit
to the board before April 1 a summary of continuing education indicating that
the required number of CEUs were completed.
(b) Active licensees who require an
extension to complete the biennial continuing education requirement shall have
until April 30th to meet the requirement and, pursuant to RSA
317-A:15, submit to the board:
(1) A completed registration and license renewal
form;
(2) A biennial registration fee; and
(3) A late biennial registration fee.
(c)
During the biennium, at least 3 percent of active licensees shall be
randomly audited by the board for compliance with Den 403. Documentation
demonstrating completion of continuing education shall be submitted to the board
within 30 days after the licensee is notified of the audit. Academy of General
Dentistry, specialty, NH Dental Society, and Dental Hygienists’ Association
printouts shall be acceptable. If
the
submitted documentation does not fulfill the requirements of Den 403, the licensee shall be notified and called for a hearing
before the board to determine if the licensee has obtained the minimum
requirement to maintain an active license.
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02); amd by #6186, eff 2-17-96; paragraph (b) EXPIRED: 4-1-98; ss
by #6909, eff 12-9-98; amd by #7970, eff
10-10-03; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; ss by #9256,
eff 9-10-08; amd by #9633, eff 1-7-10; amd by #9973, eff 8-9-11; ss by #11053, eff 3-10-16
Den 403.05 Waivers.
(a)
A licensee seeking a waiver because of severe illness, incapacity, or
other hardship of any requirement of this
part shall submit a written petition to the board outlining the reasons the
licensee was unable to satisfy the biennial continuing education
requirement. Waivers shall be granted if
the board finds that severe illness, incapacity or other hardship prevented the
licensee from satisfying the biennial continuing education requirement.
(b) Dental hygienists and dentists submitting
applications for the first biennial licensure renewal after initial
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02), EXPIRED:
4-1-98
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07;
amd by #9256, eff 9-10-08; EXPIRED: 3-9-15 (para.
(b)); ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15
Den 403.06 Criteria of Acceptance.
(a)
The board shall not pre-approve courses.
(b)
Each licensee shall
select courses dealing with matters directly related to the practice of
dentistry or dental hygiene.
(c)
The licensee shall
maintain records provided by the program sponsor.
(d)
The records shall contain
the:
(1) Name of the licensee;
(2) Full name of the course;
(3) Date of the course;
(4) Location where the course was given;
(5) Duration of the course in days and hours;
(6) Name and mailing address of the provider; and
(7) Number of CEUs.
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02), EXPIRED:
4-1-98
New. #6909, eff 12-9-98, EXPIRED: 12-9-06
New. #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd
by #9973, eff 8-9-11; EXPIRED: 3-9-15 (paras. (b)-(d)); ss by #11053, eff
3-10-16
Den 403.07 Categories of Credit.
(a) A licensee shall be entitled to obtain up to
100% of the required continuing education units CEUs in any or all of the following categories:
(1) Education
and scientific courses sponsored or approved by the following:
a. American
Dental Association, component societies and constituent societies;
b. Academy of
General Dentistry;
c. American Dental Hygienists Association, component
societies, and constituent societies;
d. State or
local dental or dental hygiene professional associations or societies;
e. Dental
schools, medical schools, and
dental hygiene schools;
f. Hospital sponsored courses and conferences;
g. Governmental
health agencies and health institutions; and
h. Postgraduate
dental schools or postgraduate dental hygiene schools; and
(2) Courses
required to maintain certification in any nationally recognized professional
specialty board; and
(b) A licensee shall receive credit for 100% of
required CEUs for passing the written portion of the American Board of Dental
Examiners (ADEX), or other similar U.S. regional or state board clinical
examination for dentists or dental hygienists.
(c) A licensee shall receive credit for 3 CEUs
per biennium for successful completion of BLS-HCP course(s) given by an
American Heart Association, Red Cross, National Safety Council, American Safety
and Health Institute, American College of Emergency Physician, or Military
Training Network qualified instructor, or sponsored or approved by
organizations referenced in Den 403.07 (a)(1).
BLS-HCP shall be considered a clinical care subject. All BLS-HCP, ACLS, and PALS courses shall
include a hands-on component.
(d) A licensee shall
receive credit for up to 15% of the required CEUs in the following categories:
(1) An
original, dental-related scientific paper written by the licensee and published
in a peer reviewed scientific or professional journal; or
(2) An original presentation of a paper, essay,
or formal lecture to a group of fellow professionals.
(e) A licensee who holds a faculty or research
appointment at an accredited dental school, dental hygiene school, or medical
school shall receive credit for up to 20% of the required CEUs by teaching or
performing research at least one full day per week per academic year.
(f) A licensee shall receive credit for up to 20%
of the required CEUs for a licensee's original presentation at a table clinic
or exhibit at a regional or national meeting.
Such activity shall be credited as 2 CEUs per original presentation.
(g) A licensee shall receive credit for up to 20%
of the required CEUs by participating in correspondence courses which require
the successful completion of a written examination by the licensee to be scored
by the provider of such programs.
(h) A licensee shall receive credit for up to 50% of the required CEUs by participating in
audio-visual or online programs or live webinars which require the successful
completion of a written examination by the licensee to be scored by the
provider of such programs.
(i) A licensee shall
receive credit for up to 10% of the required CEUs by attending regional or
national meetings of the American Dental Association and its components, the
Academy of General Dentistry, the American
Dental Hygienists’ Association, and the national and regional specialty
organizations.
(j) A licensee who serves as expert consultant
for the administrative prosecutions unit of the consumer protection bureau of
the NH department of justice shall:
(1) Be credited
with one clinical CEU for every 3 hours engaged as a consultant, up to 10 CEU’s
per biennium;
(2) Have an
active New Hampshire dental or dental hygiene license; and
(3) Not be a
member of the board.
(k) A licensee shall receive credit for up to 20%
of the required CEUs by participating in the Commission on Dental Competency
Assessments (CDCA).
Source. #5332, eff 4-1-92 (from Den 304.02), EXPIRED:
4-1-98
New.
#6909, eff 12-9-98; amd by #7270, eff 5-12-00;
amd by #7661, eff 3-13-02; amd
by #7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #8100, eff 6-11-04; amd by #8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by
#8584, eff 3-16-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by
#8963, eff 8-16-07; amd by #9256, eff 9-10-08; amd by #9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd
by #9973, eff 8-9-11; amd by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; ss
by #10689, eff 10-7-14; ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; ss by #13021, eff 4-9-20; amd by #13341, EMERGENCY RULE, eff 2-8-22; ss by #13366,
eff 4-19-22 (see Revision Note at chapter heading for Den 400)
PART Den 404 REVOCATION, SUSPENSION AND OTHER SANCTIONS,
INCLUDING NON-DISCIPLINARY SUBSTANCE ABUSE RECOVERY PROGRAM
Den 404.01 Misconduct. Misconduct shall be:
(a) Addiction to mind-altering drugs or
intoxicants;
(b) Commission of any felony or misdemeanor
involving dishonesty, untrustworthiness, or unprofessional conduct;
(c) Any administrative or criminal conviction
involving moral turpitude;
(d) The practice of fraud or untruthfulness in
obtaining educational credentials, examination scores, or professional
licensure in this or any other jurisdiction;
(e) Affliction with a physical or mental
impairment or disease which is dangerous to the public health
or which precludes the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene at ordinary
levels of proficiency;
(f) Ignorance, incompetence, or a pattern of
behavior inconsistent with the basic knowledge and skills expected of persons licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;
(g) Gross or repeated negligence in practicing
dentistry or dental hygiene;
(h) Intentionally injuring a patient or engaging
in any other unprofessional or dishonest conduct in practicing dentistry or
dental hygiene;
(i) Failure to
follow the current guidelines of:
(1) The
American Dental Association, as adopted by the board, as published in:
a. The “Dental
Radiographic Examinations: Recommendations for Patient Selection and Limiting
Radiation Exposure”, required by Den 501.01(p); or
b.
“Recommendations in Radiographic Practices” Journal of the American
Dental Association, January 1989; and
(2) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
as published in Infection Control Recommendations;
(j) Advertising the licensee's dental practice by
using any newspaper, broadcast, cable transmission, telephone, sign, poster, or
other advertising message which:
(1) Deceives or
is intended to deceive the public concerning dental services, techniques, the
qualifications of a licensee, or the prices to be charged;
(2) Claims or
suggests that the licensee enjoys professional superiority or performs services
in a manner superior to other persons licensed by this
chapter or that the licensee performs services or any particular
service in a painless manner; or
(3) Announces
the use of any drug or medicine of an unknown formula or any system or
anesthetic that is unnamed, misnamed, misrepresented, or not in reality used;
(k) Employing or permitting an unlicensed person
to practice in the licensee's office;
(l) Knowingly or willfully violating any
provision of the board’s administrative rules, RSA 317-A, order of the dental
board, any federal, state, or local controlled drug law or other federal,
state, or local laws or regulations pertaining to:
(1) The
practice of dentistry, and the Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional
Conduct of the American Dental Association, as required by Den 501; or
(2) The
practice of dental hygiene, and the Code of Ethics of the American Dental
Hygienists' Association, as required by Den 501;
(m) Having more than
one patient undergoing moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia
on an outpatient basis at any given time unless each patient is being
continuously monitored on a one-to-one ratio while sedated by either the
dentist or another licensed health professional authorized by law to administer
moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia;
(n) Failing to have patients recovering from
moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia closely monitored by
licensed health professionals experienced in the care and resuscitation of
patients recovering from moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general
anesthesia. If one licensed professional is responsible for the recovery care
of more than one patient at a time, all of the
patients shall be physically in the same room to allow
continuous visual contact with all patients and the patient to recovery staff
ratio should not exceed 3 to one;
(o)
Failing to have patients continuously monitored with a pulse oximeter or
arterial blood gas monitoring machine while undergoing or recovering from
moderate sedation, deep sedation, or general anesthesia;
(p) Failing to perform an adequate history and
physical as defined in rules under RSA 317-A:12, XII-a(i)
or to obtain the written informed consent of a patient prior to the
administering general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation. In the
case of a minor, the consent shall be obtained from the child's parent or
guardian;
(q) Failing to report an adverse event or
implement a corrective action plan as required by RSA 317-A:20-a; or
(r) Violation of:
(1) Any
provision of RSA 317-A;
(2) Any rule
adopted by the board; or
(3) Any state
or federal law reasonably related to the licensee's authority to practice or
the licensee's ability to practice safely; and
(s) In the licensees
role as a dentist or dental hygienist, unprofessional conduct shall include, but not be limited to:
(1) Yelling,
swearing, or using profanity;
(2) Throwing
items at or in the direction of any person;
(3) Verbally
threatening; and
(4) Grabbing,
pulling, or pushing any person.
Den
404.02 Sanctions.
(a) Pursuant to RSA 310:12, I(e), disciplinary
measures available to the board to sanction misconduct shall be:
(1) Revocation
or suspension of a licensure;
(2) Limitation
or restriction of a license;
(3) Requiring
the licensee to submit to the care, counseling, or treatment of a physician,
counseling service, health care facility, professional assistance program, or
any comparable person or facility, approved by the board;
(4) Requiring
the licensee to participate in educational programs relevant to the practice of
dentistry in substantive areas in which the licensee has been found
professionally deficient;
(5) Requiring
the licensee to practice under the direction of a
dentist in a public institution, public, or private health care program, or
private practice for a period of time specified in Den
rules adopted pursuant to RSA 541-A;
(6) Assessing
administrative fines in amounts established in Den 404.05 below which shall not
exceed $2,000 per offense or, in the case of continuing offenses, $250 for each
day the violation continues; or
(7) Reprimand.
Source. #13956, eff 7-5-24
Den
404.03 Procedure for Imposition of
Sanctions. Other than immediate
license suspension authorized by RSA 541-A:30, III, the board shall impose
disciplinary sanctions only:
(a) After prior notice to the licensee and
opportunity for the licensee to be heard; or
(b) By agreement in a settlement between the
board and the licensee.
Source. #13956, eff 7-5-24
Den
404.04 Determinations Required for
Sanctions. Sanctions by the board
shall be determined as follows:
(a) The board shall select appropriate
sanction(s) from the list in Den 404.02, choosing the sanction or combination
of sanctions most likely to:
(1) Protect
public health and safety;
(2) Prevent
future misconduct by the licensee;
(3) Take into account any acknowledgement of fault by the
licensee and any cooperation by the licensee with the board’s investigation of
misconduct;
(4) Correct any
attitudinal, educational, or other deficiencies which led to the licensee’s
misconduct;
(5) Encourage
the responsible practice of mental health; and
(6) Demonstrate
to the licensee and the public the board’s intention to ensure that its
licensees practice in accordance with applicable law and the public welfare.
(b) In determining which sanction or combination
of sanctions to impose, the board shall:
(1) First
determine the nature of the act or omission constituting the misconduct done by
the licensee;
(2) Next
determine whether the misconduct has one or more of the characteristics listed
in (c) below; and
(3) Apply the
standard’s outlined in Den 404.04(a).
(c) The characteristics shall be:
(1) The
misconduct actually caused physical or mental harm to
the client or another person;
(2) The
misconduct had the potential to cause physical or mental harm to the client or
another person;
(3) The
misconduct repeated earlier misconduct done by the licensee, as determined by:
a. An earlier
hearing;
b. An earlier
settlement agreement predicated on the same misconduct by the licensee; or
c. An admission by the licensee;
(4) The
misconduct was not the first misconduct by the licensee, as determined by:
a. An earlier
hearing;
b. An earlier
settlement agreement predicated on the same misconduct by the licensee; or
c. An admission by the licensee; and
d. The
misconduct was intentional rather than the result of negligence or inadvertence.
Source. #13956, eff 7-5-24
Den
404.05 Imposition of Fines.
(a) Fines, penalties, and monetary sanctions
shall be assessed by the board upon a finding of licensee misconduct in
accordance with the considerations of RSA 310:12, Den 501, and Den 502.
(b) Fines, if imposed, shall not exceed the
following amounts:
(1) When no
violation of the same type has occurred within the 5 years preceding the
board’s notice to the respondent, the fine assessed shall not exceed $500.00
per offense;
(2) When a
single disciplinary infraction of the same type has occurred within the 5 years
preceding the board’s notice to the licensee, the fine assessed shall not
exceed $1000.00 per offence; and
(3) When more
than one disciplinary infraction of the same type has occurred within the 5
years preceding the board’s notice to the licensee, the fine assessed shall not
exceed $2000.00 per offense.
(c) Each day the violation continues, a separate
fine up to $250.00 per day shall be assessed which shall not exceed $2000.00.
Source. #13956, eff 7-5-24
Den
404.06 Monetary Sanctions: Expenses
Relating to Discipline Enforcement.
(a) Expenses incurred by the board in the conduct
of a hearing and enforcement of discipline shall be assessed, in whole or in
part, against a licensee who is disciplined following the hearing provided the
board sets forth its reasons based upon the following criteria:
(1) The
severity of the conduct resulting in the discipline imposed;
(2) The extent
to which the evidence was in dispute;
(3) The nature
and extent of the investigation and hearing;
(4) Whether the
licensee was given the opportunity to enter into a reasonable settlement
agreement before the hearing;
(5) The
contribution that repayment of expenses makes toward rehabilitation;
(6) Whether the
payment of all or a portion of a monetary fine was suspended; and
(7) The likelihood that assessment of expenses
will deter the licensee or others from engaging in similar conduct.
(b) Following any assessment, the board shall
send a written statement of the nature and amount of each such expense to the
disciplined licensee, together with a formal demand for payment.
Source. #13956, eff 7-5-24
CHAPTER
Den 500 ETHICAL AND PROFESSIONAL DUTIES
PART Den 501 ETHICAL DUTIES
(a)
In addition to those obligations of dentists under the American Dental
Association Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct revised March
2023, as specified in Appendix II, and the obligations of dental hygienists
under the Code of Ethics of the American Dental Hygienists’ Association adopted
June 2024, as specified in Appendix II, pursuant to RSA 317-A:17, II(j), the
provisions of this section shall apply.
(b)
Dentists shall protect the health of their patients by only assigning to
hygienists and assistants those duties specified in Den 400 that the hygienist
and assistants are trained to perform correctly.
(c)
Dentists shall be further obliged to prescribe and supervise the patient
care provided by all dental hygienists and dental assistants working under
their direction.
(d)
A dentist shall neither aid nor encourage a dentist, a dental hygienist,
or a dental assistant in their employ to make use of lists of patients from an
office of former employment, nor shall a dentist, a dental hygienist, or a
dental assistant use such lists or information gathered therefrom unless prior
written consent allowing use of the lists has been obtained from the previous
employer.
(e)
Upon request of a patient, dentists shall provide a copy of the
patient’s records within 20 days for a nominal fee not to exceed $15 for up to
30 pages and $0.50 per page thereafter, pursuant to RSA 332-I:1, I. Radiographs
and models shall be provided at a reasonable cost. This obligation shall
exist whether or not the patient’s account is paid in
full or whether the patient has paid for their records.
(f)
A dentist shall inform the board in writing within 15 working days of
patient mortality associated with dental treatment. The mortality report shall meet the
requirements of Den 304.07(b).
(g)
Dentists who are about to close a dental practice in New Hampshire shall
inform their patients of record of the impending closure to allow 3 months,
when possible, for patients to obtain copies of their records or have their
records sent to another dentist. Such dentist shall notify the board in
writing of their intent to close a dental practice and shall provide the board with the name, address, and
telephone number of the licensee to whom the dentist’s patient records will be
transferred.
(h)
Pursuant to RSA 317-A:27-a, dentists shall have an ongoing obligation,
for at least 7 years, to afford their prior patients access to those records
not previously provided to the patient or new dentist.
(i) Dentists and dental hygienists shall have an
ongoing obligation to repay loans provided to them for their dental education.
(j)
Dentists and dental hygienists shall inform the board within 30 days in writing of any sanction pursuant to Den 301.01(a)(10),
Den 301.02(a)(10), Den 301.03(a)(10), and Den 301.04(a)(12) imposed by any
jurisdiction.
(k)
When discontinuing a course of treatment, dentists shall be available to
provide emergency care for up to 30 days or until the patient obtains the
services of another dentist, whichever occurs first.
(l)
A consultant shall not be required to have a New Hampshire dental
license to provide a consultation or expert opinion to a New Hampshire dentist
regarding a patient, if the consultant has no contact with the patient.
(m)
When dental records are being discarded, dentists shall
destroy them by some method that maintains confidentiality.
(n)
Either directly or through a third-party creditor, dentists shall not
make patients financially responsible for the entire cost of a treatment plan
before the patient gives informed consent to the treatment plan, including all
financial responsibilities clearly explained.
(o)
Licensees shall submit only truthful and correct information in any
application or other documents filed with or statement made to the board or the
OPLC.
Source. #287.2, eff 1-17-74; ss by #2981, eff
2-28-85; ss by #5110, eff 4-4-91, EXPIRED: 4-4-97
New. #6540, eff 7-18-97; ss by #6909, eff 12-9-98;
amd by #7364, eff 9-19-00; amd
by #7778, eff 10-10-02; amd by #7929, eff 8-6-03; amd by #7970, eff 10-10-03; amd
by #8260, eff 1-19-05; amd by #8584, eff 3-16-06; amd by #8694, eff 7-27-06; ss by #8838, eff 3-9-07; amd by #8963, eff 8-16-07; amd by
#9256, eff 9-10-08; amd by #9408-B, eff 3-10-09; amd by #9633, eff 1-7-10; amd by
#9778, eff 9-3-10; amd by #9973, eff 8-9-11; amd by #10068, eff 1-10-12; amd
by #10328-B, eff 5-7-13; amd by #10437, eff 10-8-13;
ss by #10689, eff 10-17-14; ss by #10824, eff 5-6-15; ss by #10991, eff 12-9-15;
ss by #12428, eff 12-6-17; amd by #12549, eff 6-15-18;
ss by #14167, eff 3-7-25
PART
Den 502 PROFESSIONAL DUTIES
Den 502.01 Controlled Substance Misconduct.
(a) Dentists shall,
pursuant to RSA 317-A:17, II(j), be under a professional duty to comply with
the requirements of the Controlled Drug Prescription Health and Safety Program
(PDMP), RSA 126-A:91, and all administrative rules of the board of pharmacy
adopted thereunder.
(b) As established by RSA 126-A:92, I, the
following actions shall result in a disciplinary proceeding and the imposition
of sanctions by the board in accordance with its rules:
(1) Prescribing or
dispensing of controlled substances in schedules II-IV after June 30, 2015 without having registered with the program;
(2) The knowing disclosure
of program information by a person authorized to receive it in a manner that
violates RSA 126-A:92, I or administrative rules of the department of health
and human services;
(3) The use of program
information by a person authorized to receive it for a purpose that violates
RSA 126-A:92, I or administrative rules of the department of health and human
services; and
(4) Permitting the use or
disclosure of program information under control of the dentist by a person not
authorized to receive it in violation of RSA 126-A:92, I or administrative
rules of the department of health and human services.
Source. #10824, eff 5-6-15; amd
in para (c) by #11013, EMERGENCY RULE, eff 1-5-16, EXPIRES: 7-3-16; amd in para. (c) by #11129, REPEAL OF EMERGENCY RULE, eff
6-29-16; ss by #14167, eff 3-7-25
PART Den 503
OPIOID PRESCRIBING
Den 503.01 Applicability. This part shall apply to the prescribing of
opioids for the management or treatment of non-cancer and non-terminal pain, and shall not apply to the supervised administration
of opioids in a health care setting.
Source. #11130, eff 6-29-16; ss by #12061, eff 1-1-17
Den 503.02 Definitions. Except where the context makes another
meaning manifest, the following words shall have the meanings indicated when
used in this part:
(a) “Acute pain”
means the normal, predicted physiological response to a noxious chemical,
thermal, or mechanical stimulus and typically is associated with invasive
procedures, trauma, and disease. It can
be time-limited, often less than 30 days in duration;
(b)
“Chronic pain” means a state in which non-cancer pain persists beyond
the usual course of an acute disease or healing of an injury, or that might or
might not be associated with an acute or chronic pathologic process that causes
continuous or intermittent pain over months or years. It also includes intermittent episodic pain
that might require periodic treatment. For the purposes of these rules, chronic
pain does not include pain from cancer or terminal disease;
(c)
“Clinical coverage” means specified and prearranged coverage that is
available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to assist in the management of
patients with chronic pain;
(d)
“Medication-assisted treatment” means any treatment of opioid addiction
that includes a medication, such as methadone, buprenorphine, or naltrexone,
that is approved by the FDA for opioid detoxification or maintenance treatment;
(e)
“Morphine equivalent dose (MED)” means a conversion of various opioids
to a morphine equivalent dose by the use of
board-approved conversion tables;
(f) “Risk assessment”
means a process for predicting a patient’s likelihood of misusing or abusing
opioids in order to develop and document a level of
monitoring for that patient; and
(g) “Treatment
agreement” means a written agreement that outlines the joint responsibilities
of dentist and patient.
Source. #11130, eff 6-29-16; ss by #12061, eff 1-1-17;
ss by #14167, eff 3-7-25 (formerly Den 503.03)
Den 503.03 Acute Pain. If opioids are
indicated and clinically appropriate for prescription for acute pain,
prescribing licensees shall:
(a) Conduct and document an examination of the
oral cavity and associated structures and a medical
history;
(b) Consider the patient’s risk for opioid
misuse, abuse, or diversion and prescribe for the lowest effective dose for
less than 30 days;
(c) Document the prescription and rationale for
all opioids;
(d) Ensure that the patient has been provided information that contains the following:
(1) Risk of side effects,
including addiction and overdose resulting in death;
(2) Risks of keeping unused
medication;
(3) Options for safely securing
and disposing of unused medication; and
(4) Danger in operating motor vehicle or heavy machinery;
(e) Comply with all federal and state controlled substances laws, rules, and regulations;
(f) Complete a board-approved risk assessment
tool, such as the evidence based screening tool
Screener and Opioid Assessment for Patients with Pain (SOAPP);
(g) Document the consideration of
non-pharmacological modalities and non-opioid therapy, and an appropriate pain
treatment plan which includes the type of drug, the dosage, and the duration of
the prescription;
(h) Utilize a written informed consent that
explains the following risks associated with opioids:
(1) Addiction;
(2) Overdose and death;
(3) Physical dependence;
(4) Physical side effects;
(5) Hyperalgesia;
(6) Tolerance; and
(7) Crime victimization;
(i) In an emergency department, urgent care setting, or walk-in clinic:
(1) Not prescribe more than the
minimum amount of opioids dentally
necessary to treat the patient’s dental condition. In most cases, an opioid
prescription of 3 or fewer days is sufficient, but a licensee shall not
prescribe for more than 7 days; and
(2) If prescribing an opioid
for acute pain that exceeds a board-approved limit, document the dental
condition and appropriate clinical rationale in the patient’s medical record;
and
(j) Not be obligated to prescribe opioids for
more than 30 days, but if opioids are indicated and appropriate for persistent,
unresolved acute pain that extends beyond a period of 30 days, the licensee
shall work in concert with the patient’s primary care physician or a licensed
pain management program, and shall continue to adhere to the terms of Den
503.05 for establishing a pain management program.
Source. #11130, eff 6-29-16; ss by #12061, eff 1-1-17
(from Den 503.03); renumbered by #12167, eff 3-7-25 (formerly Den 503.04)
Den 503.04 Chronic Pain. If opioids are indicated and clinically
appropriate for prescription for chronic pain, prescribing licensees shall:
(a) Conduct and document an examination of the
oral cavity and associated structures and a medical
history;
(b) Conduct and document a risk assessment,
including, but not limited to, the use of an evidence-based screening tool such
as the Screener and Opioid Assessment for Patients with Pain (SOAPP);
(c) Document the prescription and rationale for
all opioids;
(d) Prescribe for the lowest effective dose for a
limited duration;
(e) Comply with all federal and state controlled substances laws, rules, and regulations;
(f) Utilize a written informed consent that
explains the following risks associated with opioids:
(1) Addiction;
(2) Overdose and death;
(3) Physical dependence;
(4) Physical side effects;
(5) Hyperalgesia;
(6) Tolerance; and
(7) Crime victimization;
(g) Create and discuss a treatment plan with the
patient. This shall include, but not be
limited to the goals of treatment, in terms of pain management, restoration of
function, safety, time course for treatment, and consideration of
non-pharmacological modalities and non-opioid therapy. Informed consent documents and treatment
agreements may be part of one document for the sake of convenience;
(h) Utilize a written treatment agreement that is
included in the medical record, and specifies conduct that triggers the
discontinuation or tapering of opioids;
(i) The agreement shall also address, at a
minimum, the following:
(1) The
requirement of safe medication use and storage;
(2) The requirement
of obtaining opioids from only one prescriber or practice;
(3) The consent to
periodic and random drug testing; and
(4) The
prescriber’s responsibility to be available or to have clinical coverage
available;
(j) Document the consideration of a consultation
with an appropriate specialist in the following circumstances:
(1) When
the patient receives a 100 mg morphine equivalent dose daily for longer than 90
days;
(2) When
a patient is at high risk for abuse or addiction; or
(3) When
a patient has a co-morbid psychiatric disorder;
(k) Reevaluate treatment plans and use of opioids
at least twice a year;
(l) Require random and periodic urine drug
testing at least annually for all patients using opioids for longer than 90
days. Unanticipated findings shall be
addressed in a manner that supports the health of the patient;
(m) Have clinical coverage available for 24 hours
per day, 7 days per week, to assist in the management of patients; and
(n) The prescribing licensee may forego the
requirements for a written treatment agreement and for periodic drug testing
for patients:
(1) Who are residents in a
long-term, non-rehabilitative nursing home facility where medications are
administered by licensed staff; or
(2) Who are being treated for
episodic intermittent pain and receiving no more than 50 dose units of opioids
in a 3 month period.
Source. #11130, eff 6-29-16; ss by #12061, eff 1-1-17
(from Den 503.04); renumbered by #12167, eff 3-7-25 (formerly Den 503.05)
Den 503.05 Prescription Drug Monitoring Program.
(a) Prescribing licensees required to register
with the program under RSA 318-B:31-40, or their delegate, shall query the
prescription drug monitoring program to obtain a history of schedule II-IV
controlled substances dispensed to a patient, prior to prescribing an initial
schedule II, III, and IV opioids for the management or treatment of this
patient’s pain and then periodically and at least twice per year, except when:
(1) Controlled medications are
to be administered to patients in a health care setting;
(2) The program is inaccessible or not
functioning properly, due to an internal or external electronic issue; or
(3) An emergency department is
experiencing a higher than normal patient volume such
that querying the program database would materially delay care.
(b) A licensee shall document the exceptions
described in (a)(2) and (3) above in the patient’s medical record.
Source. #11130, eff 6-29-16; ss by #12061, eff 1-1-17;
renumbered by #12167 (formerly Den 503.06)
Den 503.06 Medication Assisted Treatment. Prescribing licensees who prescribe medication
assisted treatment shall adhere to the principles outlined in the American
Society of Addiction Medicine’s National Practice Guideline For the Use of
Medications in the Treatment of Addiction Involving Opioid Use (2015) found at http://www.asam.org/quality-practice/guidelines-and-consensus-documents/npg/complete-guideline as cited in Appendix II.
Source. #11130, eff 6-29-16; ss by #12061, eff 1-1-17;
renumbered by #12167, eff 3-7-25 (formerly Den 503.07)
Den 503.07 Ongoing Requirements for the Use of
General Anesthesia, Deep Sedation, and Moderate Sedation, Moderate Sedation
Only, or Moderate Sedation with Pediatric Qualification. No dentist shall use general anesthesia, deep
sedation, or moderate sedation on an outpatient basis for dental patients
except pursuant to Den 304.
Source. #14167, eff 3-7-25
APPENDIX I
|
RULE |
STATUTE |
|
Den 101 |
RSA 541-A:7 |
|
Den 101.02 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII and XIV |
|
Den 101.03 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII and XIV |
|
Den 101.05 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII |
|
Den 101.06 |
RSA 541-A:7;
317-A:12, XII-b and XII-c |
|
Den 101.11 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII |
|
Den 101.10 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII |
|
Den 101.14 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII and XIV |
|
Den 101.15 |
RSA 317-A:7;
317-A:9; 317-A:12, IV |
|
Den 101.16 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII |
|
Den 101.20 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII; 317-A:21-e, IV |
|
Den 101.24 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII |
|
Den 101.25 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII and XIV |
|
Den 101.34 |
RSA 317-A:12, XIII and XIV |
|
Den 102.01 |
RSA 317-A:2; RSA 317-A:2-b; RSA 317-A:17, V |
|
Den 102.01 (f) |
RSA 317-A:12, X,
XIII; 541-A:16, I (a) |
|
Den 103 |
RSA 317-A:4, II;
RSA 317-A:12, XIV |
|
|
|
|
Den 201.01 |
RSA 317-A:12,
IX, XIV |
|
Den 201.02 |
RSA 541-A:16, I
(b); RSA 317-A:12, XIV |
|
|
|
|
Den 301.01 (Specific
provisions implementing specific statutes are
cited below) |
RSA 317-A:12, I,
and III; 317-A:8 |
|
Den 301.01 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III; RSA 317-A:21, II |
|
Den 301.01 (i) |
RSA 317-A:12,
III and IV |
|
Den 301.01 (k) |
RSA 317-A:12
III, and IV |
|
|
|
|
Den 301.02 (Specific
provisions implementing specific statutes are
cited below) |
RSA 317-A:12, I,
and III; 317-A:8 |
|
Den 301.02 |
RSA 317-A:12, III; RSA 317-A:21,
II |
|
Den 301.02 (h)
(1) |
RSA 317-A:12,
III and IV |
|
Den 301.02 (o) |
RSA 318-B:33, II |
|
Den 301.05 |
RSA 317-A:8;
317-A:12, I |
|
Den 301.06 |
RSA 317-A:12,
VIII; RSA317-A:12, XIV; RSA 317-A:16 |
|
Den 301.07 |
RSA 317-A:12, I |
|
Den 301.09 |
RSA 317-A:12, I
and II; RSA 317-A:13, III; RSA 317-A:18, VI |
|
Den 301.10 |
RSA 317-A:7-a,
III; 317-A:12, III |
|
Den 301.11 |
RSA 161-B:II,
VI-a |
|
Den 301.12 |
RSA 317-A:15-a; |
|
Den 301.13 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III |
|
Den 302.01 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III |
|
Den 302.02 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XIII |
|
Den 302.03 |
RSA 317-A:12, III |
|
Den 302.04 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III |
|
Den 302.05 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III and XII-b |
|
Den 302.06 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III and XII-b |
|
Den 302.07 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III |
|
Den 302.08 |
RSA 317-A:12,
III |
|
Den 303.01 |
RSA 317-A:9;
317-A:12, IV |
|
Den 303.02 |
RSA 317-A:9; 317-A:12, IV; 317-A:21-a |
|
Den 303.03 |
RSA 317-A:12, IV; RSA 317-A:12, XIV |
|
Den 304.01 |
RSA 317-A:20,
II; 317-A:12, XII-c (a) |
|
Den 304.02 |
RSA 317-A:20,
II; 317-A:12, XII-a (e) & (c) |
|
Den 304.03 |
RSA 317-A:20,
II; 317-A:12, XII-a (e) & (c) |
|
Den 304.04 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-a(f) |
|
Den 304.05 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-a (f) & (h) |
|
Den 304.06 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-a; RSA 317-A:20, II |
|
Den 304.07 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-a (f); RSA 317-A:12, XII-c |
|
Den 304.08 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-a (h) |
|
|
|
|
Den 401.01 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-b |
|
Den 401.02 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-b |
|
Den 401.03 |
RSA 317-A:12,
XII-b |
|
Den 402.01 |
RSA 317-A:21-c;
RSA 317-A:12, XII-b |
|
Den 402.02 |
RSA 317-A:12, I |
|
Den 402.03 |
RSA 317-A:12, I |
|
Den 403.01 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 403.02 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 403.03 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 403.04 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 403.05 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 403.06 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 403.07 |
RSA 317-A:12, XI |
|
Den 404.01 |
RSA 317-A:17, II |
|
Den 404.02 |
RSA 310:12, I(e) |
|
Den 404.03 |
RSA 310:12, I(e) |
|
Den 404.04 |
RSA 310:12, I(e) |
|
Den 404.05 |
RSA 310:12, I(e) |
|
Den 404.06 |
RSA 310:12, I(e) |
|
|
|
|
Den 501.01 |
RSA 317-A:12, VI |
|
Den 502.01 |
RSA 318-B:33 |
|
Den
503 |
RSA
317-A:12, VI, XIII; RSA 318-B:41, I(a)(2), II |
|
Den
503.02 |
RSA
317-A:12, VI and XIII; RSA 318-B:41, I(a)(2) and II |
|
Den
503.07 |
RSA
317-A:12, VI and XIII; RSA 318-B:41, I(a)(2) and II |
APPENDIX II
|
Rule |
Title |
Obtain at: |
|
|
Den 304.02
(b)(3)a.1. and b.2.; (c)(3)
b.2.; and (m)(3) |
ADA 2012
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists” (Amended 2012) |
American Dental
Association Obtain online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Advocacy/Files/
anesthesia_use_guidelines.ashx Cost: none Contact: (800) 621-8099 Jane Josek, ext.
2694 |
|
|
Den 304.02
(b)(3)b.1.; and (c)(3)b.1. |
8th
edition of the “Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual” of the American
Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons, 2012 |
American
Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons Obtain online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Advocacy/Files/
anesthesia_use_guidelines.ashx Cost: $95 (member) $285
(non-member) Contact: (800) 366-6725 |
|
|
Den 304.02
(c)(3)a.; and (m)(2) |
ADA 2012
“Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental
Students” (Amended 2012) |
American Dental
Association Obtain online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Member%20
Center/FIles/teaching_paincontrol_guidelines.ashx Cost: none Contact: (800) 621-8099 Jane Josek, ext.
2694 |
|
|
Den
304.04 (a)(3)a.; and
Den 304.06(a)(2) |
ADA
October 2016 “Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists
and Dental Students” (Amended
Oct. 2016) |
American
Dental Association Obtain
online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Member%20
Center/FIles/teaching_paincontrol_guidelines.ashx Cost: none Contact: (800) 621-8099 Jane
Josek, ext. 2694 |
|
|
Den
304.06(a)(3) |
ADA
October 2016 “Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by
Dentists” |
American
Dental Association Obtain
online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Advocacy/Files/
anesthesia_use_guidelines.ashx Cost: none Contact: (800) 621-8099 Jane
Josek, ext. 2694 |
|
|
Den 304.02
(d)(1) |
(Adopted 2006) (Reaffirmed 2011
by |
Obtain online www.aapd.org/media/Policies_Guidelines/
G_Sedation.pdf Cost: none Contact: (312) 337-2169 |
|
|
Den 304.03
(b)(3)a.1. and b.2.; (c)(3) b.2.; and Den 304.04(a)(3)b., 2. |
ADA 2016
“Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists” |
American Dental
Association Obtain online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Advocacy/Files/
anesthesia_use_guidelines.ashx Cost: none Contact: (800) 621-8099 Jane Josek, ext.
2694 |
|
|
Den
304.03(b)(3)b.1; and Den 304.04(a)(3)b.1 |
8th
Edition of the “Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual” of the American
Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons, 2012 |
American
Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons Obtain online https://www.aaomsstore.com/p-134-office-anesthesia-evaluation-manual-8th-edition.aspx Cost: $95
(member) $285
(non-member) $190 (instutition) Contact: (800)
366-6725 |
|
|
Den 304.04
(a)(3)a.; and Den
304.06(a)(2) |
ADA 2012
“Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental
Students” (Amended 2012) |
American Dental
Association Obtain online www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Member%20
Center/FIles/teaching_paincontrol_guidelines.ashx Cost: none Contact: (800) 621-8099 Jane Josek, ext.
2694 |
|
|
Den 304.04(b)(1) |
“Guidelines for
Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for
Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures” (Eff. 2006) |
American Academy
of Pediatric Dentistry Obtain online http://www.aapd.org/media/Policies_Guidelines/ G_Sedation1.pdf Cost: none |
|
|
Den 304.06(a)(3) |
“Guidelines for
the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists” (Eff. 2012) |
American Dental
Association Obtain online http://www.ada.org/en/~/media/ADA/ Education%20and%20Careers/ Files/ADA_Sedation_Use_Guidelines Cost: none |
|
|
Den 501.01 (a);
Den 302.04 (b) |
Principles of
Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct (Amended April
2012) |
American Dental
Association Obtain online www.ada.org/194.aspx Cost: none Contact: (312) 440-2500 American Dental
Association 211 East Chicago
Ave. Chicago, IL
60611-2678 |
|
|
Den 501.01 (a) |
Code of Ethics
of the American Dental Hygienists Association (Adopted June
20, 2011 Amended June 18,
2012) |
American Dental
Hygienists’ Association Obtain online www.adha.org Click on tab
About ADHA, then click on
Bylaws and Ethics Cost: none Any questions or
information requests can be directed to membership. services@adha.net or by calling
(312) 440-890 |
|
|
Den
501.01(p) and Den 404.01(i)(1)a. |
Dental
Radiographic Examinations: Recommendations for Patient Sedation and Limiting
Radiation Exposure (Revised 2016) |
American Dental
Association Obtain online at
no cost at: http://www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Member%20Center/ FIles/Dental_Radiographic_Examinations_2012.ashx |
|
|
Den
404.01(i)(1)a. |
Recommendations
in Radiographic Practices: an update, 1988 (JADA, Volume 118, January 1989) |
American
Dental Association Council on Dental Materials, Instruments, and Equipment Obtained
at no cost at: https://www.sciencedirect.com/sdfe/pdf/download/eid/1-s2.0-S0002817789810281/first-page-pdf |
|
|
Den
501.01 (a); Den 302.04 (b) |
Principles
of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct (Amended
Nov. 2016) |
American
Dental Association Obtain
online www.ada.org/194.aspx Cost: none Contact:
(312) 440-2500 American
Dental Association 211
East Chicago Ave. Chicago,
IL 60611-2678 |
|
|
Den
501.01 (a) |
Code
of Ethics of the American Dental Hygienists Association (Adopted
June 20, 2011 Amended
June 13, 2016) |
American
Dental Hygienists’ Association Obtain
online www.adha.org Click
on tab About ADHA, then click on Bylaws and Ethics Cost: none Any
questions or information requests can be directed to membership.
services@adha.net or
by calling (312) 440-890 |
|
|
Den 503.07 |
The
American Society of Addiction Medicine’s “National Practice Guideline For the
Use of Medications in the Treatment of Addiction Involving Opioid Use,”
adopted on June 1, 2015. |
No
cost to download from: http://www.asam.org/quality-practice/guidelines-and-consensus-documents/npg/complete-guideline |
|